Answer:
Inventory turnover in days = 43.59 days
Inventory turnover (No of times)= 8.37 times
Explanation:
<em>Inventory turnover days is the average length of time it takes a business to sell its inventory before replacement.</em>
Inventory turnover in days
= Average inventory /Cost of goods sold × 365 days
<em>Average inventory = (Opening Inventory + closing inventory)/2</em>
<em>Average inventory </em>
= (21,000 + 22,000)/2
= 21,500
<em>Inventory turnover in days</em>
(21,500/180,600) × 365 days
=43.597 days
Inventory turnover (No of times )
= Cost of goods sold/Average inventory
= 180,600/21,500
= 8.37 times
Answer:
The correct answer is option A.
Explanation:
Income tax is a tax imposed by the government on the income earned by the individuals. This income can be from capital and labor. It creates a deadweight loss in the market for labor and capital.
Deadweight loss is the loss to economic efficiency and production caused by a tax. The imposition of a tax creates a tax wedge, this tax wedge leads to a deadweight loss. Deadweight loss due to income tax is the loss of purchasing power or reductions standard of living due to tax.
The inefficiency or tax burden depends upon the elasticities of demand and supply. Whoever has the least elasticity will share most of the tax burden.
Answer:
The thief has a 0.11% probability of hitting the pin code on the first try.
Explanation:
Simply, if the ATM card has a 3-digit code that can be repeated, and the board has 9 numbers (for example, from 1 to 9), we must start from the smallest number that could be formed with these numbers to the highest number that these numbers could also compose, which in the case would be 111 and 999. Then, 889 different numbers could be formed (it is the distance between 111 and 999), with which the possibility of hitting the key to the first attempt would be 1 in 889 times, or 1/889.
To take the probability to a percentage, we must know that 889 / 8.89 gives 100. Therefore, dividing 1 / 8.89 we will know the percentage of probabilities of hitting the key on the first attempt: 1 / 8.89 = 0.11.
This shows us that the thief has a 0.11% probability of hitting the key on the first try.
Answer:
$32,000
Explanation:
Net advantage = Annual operating cost
Net advantage = [(Old machine - New machine)*10 life] - New machine cost + Old machine cost
Net advantage = [($320000 - $240000)*10] - $800000 + $32000
Net advantage = [($80000)*10 - $768,000
Net advantage = $800,000 - $768,000
Net advantage = $32,000
So, the net advantage of replacing the old machine is $32,000
Answer:
I need help too, I'm about to fail this
