Answer:
5,110,000 and 5,170,000.
Explanation:
earnings per share EPS = (net income - preferred dividends) / weighted average of outstanding shares
- 4,800,000 at the beginning of the year
- 200,000 issued April 1 = 200,000 x 9/12 = 150,000
- 480,000 issued September 1 = 480,000 x 4/12 = 160,000
weighted average outstanding shares = 4,800,000 + 150,00 + 160,000 = 5,110,000
diluted shares = ($6,000,000 / $1,000) x 40 x 3/12 = 60,000
diluted EPS = (net income - preferred dividends) / (weighted average of outstanding shares + diluted shares)
weighted average of outstanding shares + diluted shares = 5,110,000 + 60,000 = 5,170,000 shares
Answer:
I think it is the buddy approach method.
Explanation:
Answer:
Brand name, Running, Comfortable, Resistant, Trendy, Heavy duty, Best seller (In case it is)
Explanation:
I would use words that highlight the brand, use, benefits and attributes of that particular model, such as:
Brand name, Running, Comfortable, Resistant, Trendy, Heavy duty, Best seller (In case it is),
Answer:
C. the money supply to fall.
Explanation:
According to my research on economics, I can say that based on the information provided within the question an increase in currency holdings will cause the money supply to fall. This is because if people begin to hold this causes the cash flow to decrease and money supply decreases because of the low cash flow.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
Answer:
The price of the bonds is $ 1,276.
Explanation:
The value of bond or issue price can be calculated by discounting all future cash flow using effective rate of retun. Detail calculations are given below.
Future Value = Redemption present value (RPV) + Present value of interest (PVI)
RPV = 1,000 (1+5%)^-15 = $ 481 -A
PVI = 36.25 * Annuity factor =$ 759 -B
Future Value = A + B = $ 1,276
Annuity factor = (1- (1+i%)^-n)/i% = (1- (1+5%/2)^-30)/(5%/2) = 20.9303
