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guapka [62]
3 years ago
5

The aggregate demand curve is negatively sloped due to: a the elasticity effect of an aggregate price level change b the fiscal

policy effect c the substitution effect of the aggregate price level change d the wealth effect of an aggregate price level change
Business
1 answer:
balandron [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

d. the wealth effect of an aggregate price level change

Explanation:

The aggregate demand curve is negatively sloped due to <u>the wealth effect of an aggregate price level change</u>. The reason is that rise in the aggregate price decreases the purchasing power of the individual and thus, decreases in aggregate demand increases the purchasing power of the individual.

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When economists are sketching examples of demand and supply, it is common to sketch a demand or supply curve that is close to ve
Hitman42 [59]

Answer:

a. inelastic

Explanation:

<em>As you can see in the image I added, the curve that is close to a vertical is the inelastic one.</em> Inelastic means that the demand remains the same even if the prices go up or down.

I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!

6 0
3 years ago
Carrying Amount $120,000 Selling Price $80,000 Costs of Disposal $5,000 Expected Future Cash Flows $90,000 Present Value of expe
frez [133]

Answer:

$35,000

Explanation:

Under IAS 36, an asset is said to be impaired where the carrying amount is more than the recoverable amount.

The recoverable amount is the higher of the fair value less cost to sell or the value in use which is the present value of the expected future cashflow.

Given that;

Carrying Amount = $120,000

Selling Price = $80,000

Costs of Disposal = $5,000

Hence fair value less cost to sell = $80,000 - $5,000 = $75,000  

Expected Future Cash Flows = $90,000

Present Value of expected future cash flows = $85,000 ( this is the value in use)

Recoverable amount = $85,000 (since the value in use is higher that the fair value less cost to sell)

This is lower than the carrying amount hence the asset is impaired.

Impairment = $120,000 - $85,000

= $35,000

8 0
3 years ago
What does it mean to say that individuals as a group are net suppliers of funds for financial​ institutions? what do you think t
lana66690 [7]
I don’t know?????ahahah
8 0
3 years ago
A Japanese investor can earn a 1 percent annual interest rate in Japan or about 4.1 percent per year in the United States. If th
Whitepunk [10]

Answer: 97.99

Explanation:

The one-year forward rate that an investor would be indifferent between the U.S. and Japanese investments will be:

= Spot rate × (1 + Japanese rate / 1 + U.S rate)

= 101 × (1 + 1% / 1 + 4.1%)

= 101 × [(1 + 0.01) / (1 + 0.041)]

= 101 × (1.01/1.041)

= 101 × 0.9702209

= 97.99

4 0
3 years ago
On July 1, 2021, Tremen Corporation acquired 40% of the shares of Delany Company. Tremen paid $3,070,000 for the investment, and
forsale [732]

Answer:

Tremen's "Investment in Delany Company" account would have abalance of $3,214,000 at the end year of December 31 ,2021.

Explanation:

Dividend paid for the whole year = $170,000*4 = 680,000

= $3,070,000 + (40%)(1/2 of the year)($1,400,000 - $680,000

= $3,070,000 + 144,000

= $3,214,000

8 0
3 years ago
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