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zlopas [31]
3 years ago
10

Which statement best explains how manufacturers contributed to the economic slowdown that led to the Great Depression? a They we

re overproducing goods. b They were not meeting consumer demands. c They were charging high prices for their products. d They were unable to pay back loans borrowed from banks.
Business
1 answer:
MariettaO [177]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Letter a is correct. They were overproducing goods

Explanation:

With the economic growth in the USA, the 1920s was a decade marked by a euphoria of consumption, from that came a rampant consumerism due to the ease of obtaining credit. Thus increasing industrialization increased and worker productivity also increased, but wages did not increase at the same rate as the economy, which generated an overproduction of goods that could not be consumed and absorbed by the economy, which generated the great depression.

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Ray Jene earns $900 a week at a Publix supermarket. Ray's payroll deductions are 28%. What is Ray's take-home pay?
kaheart [24]
If Ray earns $900 a week and deductions are 28% Ray's take home pay is:
$648 a week

If we assume that the deductions of 28% are taken out of the $900 weekly we will multiply 900 by 0.28 = 252. Then subtract 252 which is the deduction amount from the 900 and we end up with take home pay of $648.
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3 years ago
Explain at least two elements of the free enterprise system here in the U.S.
Andreas93 [3]

Answer:

1.  Private ownership of factors of production

2.  Freedom to engage in commercial activities

Explanation:

<u>1.  Private ownership of factors of production</u>

In the US, individuals and firms are allowed to own properties. A significant percentage of the factors of production are in the hands of the private sector. Firms and individual influences the production of goods and services because they allocate resources to meet market demand.

<u>2.  Freedom to engage in commercial activities</u>

Entrepreneurs have the freedom to choose the type of business they want to start. They can also select the location and the time they want to operate. There are no upper limits to firms that can participate in the market.  Consumers are free to choose their suppliers. The market presents a variety of goods and services to consumers to pick from.

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3 years ago
N 2016, marvin, a cash basis taxpayer, took a $2,000 itemized deduction for state income taxes paid. this increased his itemized
notka56 [123]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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3 years ago
Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Roun
Dimas [21]

Answer:

a. Futuere Value = $19,245.86

b. Futuere Value = $3,060.86

c. Futuere Value = $0

d-1. Futuere Value = $21,170.44

d-2. Futuere Value = $3,213.90

d-3. Futuere Value = $0

Explanation:

Note: The data in the question are merged. They are therefore sorted before answering the question as follows:

Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answers to the nearest cent.

a. $900 per year for 12 years at 10%. $ 19,245.85

b. $450 per year for 6 years at 5%. $ 3,060.86

c. $200 per year for 6 years at 0%. $

d. Rework parts a, b, and c assuming they are annuities due.

Future value of $900 per year for 12 years at 10%: $ 21,170.43

Future value of $450 per year for 6 years at 5%: $ 3,213.90

Future value of $200 per year for 6 years at 0%: $

Explanation of the answer is now provided as follows:

The formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Ordinary Annuity given as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) ................................. (1)

Where,

FV = Future value of the amount =?

M = Annuity payment

r = Annual interest rate

n = number of periods years

This formula is now applied as follows:

a. $900 per year for 12 years at 10%. $ 19,245.85

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $900

r = 10%, or 0.10

n = 12

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $900 * (((1 + 0.10)^12 - 1) / 0.10)

FV = $900 * 21.38428376721

FV = $19,245.855390489

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = 19,245.86

b. $450 per year for 6 years at 5%. $ 3,060.86

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $450

r = 5%, or 0.05

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $450 * (((1 + 0.05)^6 - 1) / 0.05)

FV = $450 * 6.8019128125

FV = $3,060.860765625

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $3,060.86

c. $200 per year for 6 years at 0%. $

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $200

r = 0%, or 0

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $200 * (((1 + 0)^6 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * ((1^6 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * ((1 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * (0 / 0)

FV = $200 * 0

FV = $0

d. Rework parts a, b, and c assuming they are annuities due.

The formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Annuity Due is given as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) * (1 + r) ................................. (2)

Where,

FV = Future value

M = Annuity payment

r = Annual interest rate

n = number of periods years

This formula is now applied as follows:

d-1. Future value of $900 per year for 12 years at 10%: $ 21,170.43

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $900

r = 10%, or 0.10

n = 12

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $900 * (((1 + 0.10)^12 - 1) / 0.10) * (1 + 0.10)

FV = $900 * 21.38428376721 * 1.10

FV = $2,1170.4409295379

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $2,1170.44

d-2. Future value of $450 per year for 6 years at 5%: $ 3,213.90

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $450

r = 5%, or 0.05

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $450 * (((1 + 0.05)^6 - 1) / 0.05) * (1 + 0.05)

FV = $450 * 6.8019128125 * 1.05

FV = $3,213.90380390625

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $3,213.90

d-3. Future value of $200 per year for 6 years at 0%: $

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $200

r = 0%, or 0

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $200 * (((1 + 0)^6 - 1) / 0) * (1 + 0)

FV = $200 * ((1^6 - 1) / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * ((1 - 1) / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * (0 / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * 0 * 1

FV = $0

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Recently, the cable television networks have bombarded viewers with a variety of shows based around teams that come in to redeco
allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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