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Goryan [66]
2 years ago
7

As you get older, a Target Date Fund will adjust

Business
1 answer:
sweet [91]2 years ago
6 0

The target Date fund will adjust by holding your stocks the same and slightly increasing your bonds. Therefore the correct option is (D).

<h3>What is Target-date funds ?</h3>

Target-date funds are the funds which increases the assets for the specific time period. It is also known as exchange traded funds. Thus it is an life cycle fund wherein the allocation of the portfolio gradually becomes more cautious.

The Target Date fund will adjust by holding your stocks the same and slightly increasing your bonds. Therefore the correct option is (D).

Learn more about  target Date fund  here:

brainly.com/question/14389226

#SPJ1

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The three key functions of sensation are, respectively, _____.
Elina [12.6K]
The answer to this question is <span>detection, stimulation, and transmission
In this context, detection refers to the capability to catch the stimuli around us. Stimulation refers to everything around us that could trigger a certain response in us, and transmission refers to transform the stimuli that received into emotional output or actions.</span>
6 0
3 years ago
will pay an annual dividend of $2.25 per share next year. The company just announced that future dividends will be increasing by
snow_tiger [21]

Answer:

= $19.57

Explanation:

Price of the stock (P0) = Div1 / (r-g)

Div1 = next year's dividend = $2.25

r = required return = 12.25% or 0.1225 as a decimal

g = growth rate = 0.75% or 0.0075 as a decimal

Next, plug in the numbers to the formula;

Price (P0) = 2.25/ (0.1225 -0.0075)

Price (P0) = 2.25 / 0.115

= $19.57

5 0
3 years ago
Find the principal needed now to get the given​ amount; that​ is, find the present value.To get $ 90 after 2 and three fourths y
Kisachek [45]

Explanation:

For continuous compounding, we use the following formula

FV_{N} = PVe^{i  N}

<u>Scenario 1 : </u>

FV = $ 90

N = 2 years

I = 6%

PV= ?

FV_{N} = PVe^{i  N}

90 = PVe^{(0.06) (2)}

\frac{90}{e^{(0.06) (2)}}  = PV

PV = 79.8228

PV = $ 79.82

<u>Scenario 2:</u>

FV_{N} = PVe^{i  N}

90 = PVe^{(0.06) (3)}

PV = $ 75.17

<u>Scenario 3:</u>

FV_{N} = PVe^{i  N}

90 = PVe^{(0.06) (4)}

PV = $ 70.80

6 0
3 years ago
Accounts receivable resulting from sales to customers amounted to $40,000 and $31,000 at the beginning and end of the year, resp
lianna [129]

Answer:

$129,000

Explanation:

The indirect method fir calculating cash flows generally starts with net income and then adds or subtracts depending on the non-cash revenue or expense accounts. I.e. it starts at the end and comes back.

In this case, we are starting with net income and we need to add or subtract the changes in accounts receivable. Since accounts receivable decreased during the year it means that more money was collected increasing the cash flow.

Cash flow = net income + change in accounts receivable = $120,000 + ($40,000 - $31,000) = $120,000 + $9,000 = $129,000

8 0
3 years ago
. An agency issue is most apt to develop when: a firm encounters a period of stagnant growth. a firm downsizes. the control of a
Juli2301 [7.4K]

Answer:

The answer are,

1.the control of a firm is separated from the firm's ownership.

The agency problem arises when the management and administration is seperated from the ownership and that the managers have an conflict of interest with the owners of the company.

2. market value of the firm.

Financial management's primary aim is to give an competitive advantage to the firm by increasing its value. This involves utilising different strategies and techniques in financing, borrowing, debt management, etc.

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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