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sammy [17]
4 years ago
9

Solve for h V=1/3pir^2h

Mathematics
2 answers:
Ksju [112]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

3V/ pi r^2=h

Step-by-step explanation:

V=1/3pir^2h

Multiply each side by 3

3V=3*1/3pir^2h

3V=pir^2h

Divide each side by pi r^2

3V/ pi r^2=pir^2h/ pi r^2

3V/ pi r^2=h

mamaluj [8]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

h=9V (pi)^2

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is correct if you meant that V=(1/(3pi))^2 h

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3 years ago
Find the surface area of the prism.<br> 17.<br> 12 in. 4 in.<br> 3 in.<br> 5 in.<br> 5 in.<br> 6 in.
Phantasy [73]

Answer:

**All You Have To Do Is Add Them. It'll Get You To Your Answer..!!!

5 0
3 years ago
you roll two dice. let event A be "the first die shows a 1, a 2 , a 3 or a 6" and Event B be " The second die shows an even numb
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A- 4/6, B- 3/6
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4 0
3 years ago
Suppose that 12% of test scores for the unit 1 test were above 85 and 8% were below 70. Assuming a normal
Doss [256]

Answer:

Mean = 78.2

Standard deviation = 5.8

Step-by-step explanation:

Mathematically z-score;

= (x-mean)/SD

From the question;

12% of test scores were above 85

Thus;

P( x > 85) = 12%

P(x > 85) = 0.12

Now let’s get the z-score that has a probability of 0.12

This can be obtained from the standard normal distribution table and it is = 1.175

Thus;

1.175 = (85 - mean)/SD

let’s call the mean a and the SD b

1.175 = (85-a)/b

1.175b = 85 - a

a = 85 - 1.175b ••••••••(i)

Secondly 8% of scores were below 70

Let’s find the z-score corresponding to this proportion;

We use the standard normal distribution table as usual;

P( x < 70) = 0.08

z-score = -1.405

Thus;

-1.405 =( 70-a)/b

-1.405b = 70-a

a = 70 + 1.405b ••••••(ii)

Equate the two a

70 + 1.405b = 85 - 1.175b

85 -70 = 1.405b + 1.175b

15 = 2.58b

b = 15/2.58

b = 5.81

a = 70 + 1.405b

a = 70 + 1.405(5.81)

a = 78.16

So mean = 78.2 and Standard deviation is 5.8

4 0
4 years ago
Please<br> <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Clim_%7Bn%20%5Cto%20%5Cinfty%7D%20%5Cfrac%7B%28n%2B1%29%21%7D%7Bn%21-%28n%2B1%
Nana76 [90]
Hi there!
We are given the function - 
\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{(n+1)!}{n!-(n+1)!}
and are told to find the limit of the function. 
The limit would be n approaches infinity, giving us an answer of -1. 
Here is how you solve this:
\frac{(n+1)!}{n!-(n+1)!}
Divide by (n + 1)! - 
\frac{1}{\frac{1}{n+1}-1 }
Now, we can refine the function - 
\lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{1}{\frac{1}{n+1}-1 }
Now, just simplify. This gives us - 
\lim_{n \to \infty} (1)
We can use the rule \lim_{x \to a}c=c to simplify the whole thing to get 1. Finally, we plug it back into our second derived equation to get 1/-1, which simplifies to -1. Therefore, the answer is -1. Hope this helped and have a great day!


3 0
3 years ago
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