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Ronch [10]
3 years ago
7

What percent of 200 is 50? Pick the proportion that could be used to solve.

Mathematics
2 answers:
GenaCL600 [577]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

50 is 25% of 200 (A)

Step-by-step explanation:

satela [25.4K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Solution for 200 is what percent of 50:

200:50*100 =

(200*100):50 =

20000:50 = 400

Now we have: 200 is what percent of 50 = 400

Question: 200 is what percent of 50?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 50 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with $x$.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that $100\%=50$.

Step 4: In the same vein, $x\%=200$.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

$100\%=50(1)$.

$x\%=200(2)$.

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS

(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

$\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{50}{200}$

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

$\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{200}{50}$

$\Rightarrow x=400\%$

Therefore, $200$ is $400\%$ of $50$.

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Answer: 3, "obtuse and scalene".


Step-by-step explanation:

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Haven't seen the word scalene since 1966...


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Similarly, only one angle can be obtuse, think \_/, so every obtuse triangle has two acute angles. But I'm pretty sure "acute triangle" is defined to exclude triangles with an obtuse angle. In that case, "obtuse and acute" is contradictory. Eliminate 1.


That leaves 3, "obtuse and scalene." So now I remember a scalene triangle is one with all three sides different.


Wondering if that means all three angles are different. Yes, because if two angles are equal, the triangle has to be isosceles with base between the equal angles, roughly /_\, so two sides are equal.


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3 years ago
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