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lord [1]
3 years ago
13

The coordinate grid shows points A through K. What point is a solution to the system of inequalities?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Eddi Din [679]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Option D) F

Step-by-step explanation:

we have

y < -2x+10 -----> inequality A

The solution of the inequality A is the shaded area below the dashed line y=-2x+10

The y-intercept of the dashed line is (0,10)

The x-intercept of the dashed line is (5,0)

y < \frac{1}{2}x-2 ----> inequality B  

The solution of the inequality B is the shaded area below the dashed line y=\frac{1}{2}x-2

The y-intercept of the dashed line is (0,-2)

The x-intercept of the dashed line is (4,0)

The solution of the system of inequalities is the shaded area between the two dashed lines

see that attached figure

Remember that

If a ordered pair is a solution of the system of inequalities, then the ordered pair must lie on the shaded area of the solution

therefore

The solution are the points

E, F and G

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Answer: 15, 17, 19

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Please determine whether the set S = x^2 + 3x + 1, 2x^2 + x - 1, 4.c is a basis for P2. Please explain and show all work. It is
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The vectors in S form a basis of P_2 if they are mutually linearly independent and span P_2.

To check for independence, we can compute the Wronskian determinant:

\begin{vmatrix}x^2+3x+1&2x^2+x-1&4\\2x+3&4x+1&0\\2&4&0\end{vmatrix}=4\begin{vmatrix}2x+3&4x+1\\2&4\end{vmatrix}=40\neq0

The determinant is non-zero, so the vectors are indeed independent.

To check if they span P_2, you need to show that any vector in P_2 can be expressed as a linear combination of the vectors in S. We can write an arbitrary vector in P_2 as

p=ax^2+bx+c

Then we need to show that there is always some choice of scalars k_1,k_2,k_3 such that

k_1(x^2+3x+1)+k_2(2x^2+x-1)+k_34=p

This is equivalent to solving

(k_1+2k_2)x^2+(3k_1+k_2)x+(k_1-k_2+4k_3)=ax^2+bx+c

or the system (in matrix form)

\begin{bmatrix}1&1&0\\3&1&0\\1&-1&4\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}k_1\\k_2\\k_3\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}a\\b\\c\end{bmatrix}

This has a solution if the coefficient matrix on the left is invertible. It is, because

\begin{vmatrix}1&1&0\\3&1&0\\1&-1&4\end{vmatrix}=4\begin{vmatrix}1&2\\3&1\end{vmatrix}=-20\neq0

(that is, the coefficient matrix is not singular, so an inverse exists)

Compute the inverse any way you like; you should get

\begin{bmatrix}1&1&0\\3&1&0\\1&-1&4\end{bmatrix}^{-1}=-\dfrac1{20}\begin{bmatrix}4&-8&0\\-12&4&0\\-4&3&-5\end{bmatrix}

Then

\begin{bmatrix}k_1\\k_2\\k_3\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}1&1&0\\3&1&0\\1&-1&4\end{bmatrix}^{-1}\begin{bmatrix}a\\b\\c\end{bmatrix}

\implies k_1=\dfrac{2b-a}5,k_2=\dfrac{3a-b}5,k_3=\dfrac{4a-3b+5c}{20}

A solution exists for any choice of a,b,c, so the vectors in S indeed span P_2.

The vectors in S are independent and span P_2, so S forms a basis of P_2.

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