Question

Please help!!!!

Answer 1

Answer:

Correct choice is A

Step-by-step explanation:

If a function has an inverse, then there is at most one x-value for each y-value.

The tangent function is periodic with period $\pi.$ Hence, at each value for which $f(x)=\tan x$ is defined, $f(x+n\pi )=\tan x$ for each integer n. Therefore, the function $f(x)=\tan x$ does not have an inverse. Since tangent is not a one-to-one function, the domain must be limited. From examining the graph of the tangent function, we see that in each interval of the form

$\left((2k−1)\dfrac{\pi}{2},(2k+1)\dfrac{\pi}{2}\right)$

where k is an integer, the tangent function assumes every value in its range. Moreover, in each such interval, each y-value is achieved exactly once. Hence, we can create an invertible function by restricting the domain tangent function to one such interval. Such interval is an interval between two consecutive vertical asymptotes $x=(2k−1)\dfrac{\pi}{2}$ and $x=(2k+1)\dfrac{\pi}{2}.$