Answer:
<em>Control</em>
Explanation:
The control cycle <em>is the incremental process in which tests are prepared, tracked, reviewed, and updated. </em>
The control cycle is widely used to continually monitor organizational expenditures and system flows.
The assumption when applying the control cycle to budgeting is that each subsequent iteration of the budget will be changed based on the information obtained when comparing the initial budget with actual results.
Answer:
Answer (A) - 1 and 2
Answer (B) - 3
Answer (C) - 2
Explanation:
There are three sections to this question.
PART A: Rejecting Redundancies
Among the 4 options given in this section, the redundancies are
1. Adequate enough
2. Combined together
Why? Because there is repetition in the phrases! Adequate is the same thing as Enough and Combined means the same thing as Together.
PART B: Purging Empty Words
For the statement given, the option containing the empty words is
3. "that was unfinished"
Why? Because this is the unnecessary phrase that needs to be eliminated from the sentence, not even for conciseness sake but for the sake of proper grammar and better comprehension by the reader.
PART C: Revising a Passage
For the passage given, the type of revision that could be made to make it more concise is
2. Drop unnecessary fillers
Why? Because the second statement in the passage was an unnecessary filler. It contained information that required story telling about the efforts of "Jump High Schools".
Answer:
The discount rate assign to a new project with a Beta of 1.25 is 13.94%
Explanation:
The applicable formula is the Capital Asset Pricing Model formula of Miller and Modgliani quoted below:
Ke = Rf + (Market risk premium x Beta)
Currently Ke=14.945%
Beta =1.38
Risk free rate of return (Rf) is 4.25%
Market risk premium is the unknown
14.945%=4.25%+(Market Risk Premium)*1.38
14.945%-4.25%=Market Risk Premium*1.38
10.70%
=Market Risk Premium*1.38
10.70%/1.38=Market Risk Premium
Market Risk Premium =7.75%
However, the new project cost of equity has to be determined due to having a different Beta factor of 1.25(a different risk appetite)
Using the above formula, we have
Ke=4.25%+(7.75%
*1.25)
Ke =13.94%
If purchasing power parity holds, when a country's central bank decreases the money supply, its <u>If purchasing power parity holds, when a country's central bank decreases the money supply, its price level (rises/falls) and its currency (appreciates/depreciates) relative to other currencies in the world. </u>
A theory of exchange rate determination and a means to compare average prices of goods and services between nations is purchasing power parity (PPP).
According to the hypothesis, fluctuations in the spot exchange rate are caused by importers' and exporters' actions, which are prompted by variations in prices across nations.
Alternatively, PPP contends that changes to a nation's current account may have an impact on the value of the currency's exchange rate on the foreign exchange (Forex) market.
In contrast, the interest rate parity theory postulates that fluctuations in the exchange rate are caused by investor actions (whose transactions are reported on the capital account).
The "law of one price" as it pertains to the overall economy is the foundation of PPP theory.
Hence, option A and D is correct.
To learn more about PPP here
brainly.com/question/27463586
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Answer:
D
Explanation:
-less than $10 million since the present value of $2million received one or more years from now is less than $2million
