Felicia had $150,000 in a CD at Gravy Train Bank, which just failed. If the FDIC
2 answers:
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First, start of by saying what the probability of getting a 4 is, which is 1/6.
Now, this means the probability of not getting a 4 is 1-(1/6)=(5/6), since the total probability is 1.
After doing this, you should think about what it means to only get 4 on the last trial, the 4th trial. It means that the probabilities of the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd trial were (5/6) each. The 4th trial had a probability of (1/6). So the probability would be calculated as following: (
=
. You can use a calculator or your computer to find out that the probability is 125/1296.
I hope this was helpful!
Now, this means the probability of not getting a 4 is 1-(1/6)=(5/6), since the total probability is 1.
After doing this, you should think about what it means to only get 4 on the last trial, the 4th trial. It means that the probabilities of the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd trial were (5/6) each. The 4th trial had a probability of (1/6). So the probability would be calculated as following: (
I hope this was helpful!