Answer:
The present value of the cashflows will be $12830.30
Explanation:
The present value of the cashflows can be calculated by dividing the cash flows by the appropriate discount rate and for the appropriate time period.
The present value of the given cash flows will be,
Present Value = CF1 / (1+r) + CF2 / (1+r)^2 + .... + CFn / (1+r)^n
As the first payment is received today, it will already be in the present value so it will not be discounted.
Present value = 2000 + 3000 / (1+0.1) + 5000 / (1+0.1)^3 + 7000 / (1+0.1)^5
Present value = $12830.295 rounded off to $12830.30
Answer: 20.86%
Explanation: From the question, the credit term is 2/10, n/45. Which means that the customer gets a 2% discount if payment is made within 10 days. But the customer did not make use of this offer. The equivalent annual Interest lost on the amount of purchases is :
365/ (45-10) * 0.02 = 365/35*2%
= 0.20857 *100= 20.86%
This is calculated using 365 days in a year.
I thinks the answer is 400,000 jp I jags need more answers
