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Elodia [21]
3 years ago
14

Explain why market power leads to deadweight loss. Firms with market power create deadweight loss because they A. charge a price

that is greater than marginal cost to maximize profits. B. produce where marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost to maximize profits. C. produce more than a perfectly competitive industry would to maximize profits. D. charge a price that is less than marginal cost to maximize profits. E. charge a price that is equal to marginal cost to maximize economic surplus. The total deadweight loss from market power for the economy is ________ small large .
Business
1 answer:
Readme [11.4K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

A) Charge a price that is greater than marginal cost to maximize profits.

Explanation:

The more market power a company has, the more it will tend to act like a monopoly. For example, Microsoft is not considered a monopoly because it is the only software company in the world, but because its market power in the PC business is so large that it dominates the industry.

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Which of the following is an example of human capital?
Lostsunrise [7]

Answer:

B

Explanation:

b.the amount you get paid each week to work at the library

This is because human capital involves using humans to perform series and output and managing them only option b fall in that line

8 0
3 years ago
Charles wants to start a décor business and takes a loan of $35,000 from the bank to set up the business. Once the business is u
miv72 [106K]

Answer:

Sole Proprietorship

Explanation:

Charles is planning to start a sole proprietorship business. It is the most common form of business ownership.

This is the form of business owned, managed and operated by a single individual. Here, there is no distinction between the business and the owner. The owner of the business will have total control of all the profits incurred in the business and solely be responsible for all losses incurred as well.

5 0
3 years ago
You purchase one IBM July 125 call contract for a premium of $5. You hold the option until the expiration date when IBM stock se
Trava [24]

Answer:

Loss of $500

Explanation:

Given that

Stock price = 123

Strike price = 125

Premium price = 5

Recall that

Long call profit = (MAX (stock price - strike price, 0) - premium per share

Thus,

Long call profit = Max [0, ($123 - $125)(100)] - $500

= - $500.

Therefore, the negative sign in front indicates a loss of $500

3 0
3 years ago
In reviewing the agreement between AdCreate and Anchor Motors, Jacob Stein found that sales ofAnchor rose 2.8% compared to the p
kakasveta [241]

Answer:

AdCreate billed Anchor Motors $529,412 for the third quarter in 2010

Explanation:

The advertizing company usually takes a 15% commision

Which means from the total amount billed to customer 15% ar commision which means:

money paid to media + 15% comission of the billed amount= total amount billed

450,000 + 0.15X = X

Now, we try to solve for X and get the amount billed to anchor motors.

X = 450,000/.85 =<em> 529.411,76</em>

8 0
3 years ago
One of the more important business applications of demand elasticity is the relationship between price and total revenue. For ea
user100 [1]

Answer:

Part 1.  inelastic.

Part 2. inelastic.

Part 3. inelastic.

Explanation:

When the coefficient of elasticity of demand is less than 1, demand is inelastic, when it is equal to 1, demand is unitary elastic, when it is greater than 1, demand is elastic, and when it is equal to zero demand is perfectly inelastic.

Part 1

Price Elasticity of demand =  (dQ/dP) x P/Q

  Where : dQ = Change in Quantity

               dP = Change in Price

                 P = Initial or Old price

                 Q = Initial of Old Quantity

               dQ = $35,000 - $40,000 = - $5,000

                dP = $10 - $8 = $2

                  P = $8  

                  Q = $40,000  

Price Elasticity of demand = (-$5,000/$2) * $8/ $40,000

                       = 2,500 * 1/5000 = -0.5

Disregard the minus sign,  since elasticity of demand is less than 1, demand is inelastic.

Part 2

Price Elasticity of demand =  (dQ/dP) x P/Q

                dQ = $1,800 - $2,000 = - $200

                dP = $50 - $40  = $10

                  P = $40

                  Q = $2,000  

Price Elasticity of demand = (-$200/$10) * $40/ $2,000

                       = 20 * 0.02 = -0.4

Disregard the minus sign,  since elasticity of demand is less than 1, demand is inelastic.

Part 3

Price Elasticity of demand =  (dQ/dP) x P/Q

                dQ = $120 - $150 = - $30

                dP = $5 - $4  = $1

                  P = $4

                  Q = $150

Price Elasticity of demand = (-$30/$1) * $4/ $150

                       = 30 * 2/75 = - 0.8

Disregard the minus sign  since elasticity of demand is less than 1, demand is inelastic.

5 0
3 years ago
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