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zhuklara [117]
3 years ago
15

Which of the following statements is true of lead qualification? Group of answer choices It refers to a process that describes t

he ''homework'' that must be done by a salesperson before he or she contacts a prospect. It refers to using friends, business contacts, coworkers, acquaintances, and fellow members in professional and civic organizations to identify potential clients. It refers to determining the recognized need, buying power, and receptivity and accessibility of a sales prospect. It refers to a process in which a salesperson approaches potential buyers without any prior knowledge of the prospects' needs or financial status.
Business
1 answer:
Novosadov [1.4K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

It refers to determining the recognized need, buying power, and receptivity and accessibility of a sales prospect.

Explanation:

Lead qualification is an act of putting a qualified sales or marketing lead into a category of an already contacted customer who has been spoken with by the sales and marketing team of the organization, and therefore a more follow up will be done on it than other leads.

During the engagement by the sales and marketing team with the prospect, his need, buying power, receptivity and accessibility are determined.

Lead qualification refers to a situation where the marketing and sales teams of an organization work together to forecast the probability that a prospect will eventually buy the product of the organization.  

Lead qualification is important because it assist in saving time and energy, and also increase net earnings.

Therefore, refers to determining the recognized need, buying power, and receptivity and accessibility of a sales prospect.

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How do you depreciate a building? ​
alexdok [17]

Answer:

depriciation..it is the process of deducting the total cost of something expensive you bought for your business

Explanation:

calculations...purchase price-salvage value=depricable cost

5 0
3 years ago
The Maurer Company has a long-term debt ratio of .50 and a current ratio of 1.40. Current liabilities are $970, sales are $5,190
bekas [8.4K]

Answer:

$7,210.1065

Explanation:

The computation of net fixed assets is shown below:-

But before that we need to do the following calculations

Current Ratio = Current Assets ÷ Current Liabilities

Current Assets = 1.40 × $970

= $1,358

Profit Margin = Net Income ÷ Sales

= 9.30% = Net income ÷ $5,190

Net income = $5,190 × 9.30%

= $482.67

ROE = Net Income ÷ Shareholders Equity

16.90% = $482.67 ÷ Shareholders Equity

Shareholders Equity = $482.67 ÷ 16.90%

= $2,856.0355

Long-term debt ratio = Long term debt ÷ (Long term debt + Equity)

0.50 = Long term debt ÷ (Long term debt + $2,856.0355)

Long term debt = 0.50 × Long term debt + $2,856.0355

0.5 × Long term debt = $2,856.0355

Long term debt = $2,856.0355 ÷ 0.50

= $5,712.071

Total Assets = long term debt + Equity

= $5,712.071 + $2,856.0355

= $8,568.1065

Now

Total Assets = Current Assets + Fixed Assets

$8,568.1065 = $1,358 + fixed assets

So, the fixed asset is

= $8,568.1065 - $1,358

= $7,210.1065

7 0
3 years ago
You buy a lottery ticket to a lottery that costs $10 per ticket. There are only 100 tickets available to be sold in this lottery
arsen [322]

Answer:

Expected Loss will be $3

Explanation:

Expected Loss can be calculated by  multiplying the probabilities to Net expected outcome.

Probabilities

Prize ( $460) = 1 / 100

Prize ( $80 ) = 2 / 100

Prize ( $20 ) = 4 / 100

No prize = 100/100 - (1+2+4)/100 = 93/100

Expected value = [( 460 - 10 ) x 1/100 ] + [( 80 - 10 ) x 2/100 ] + [( 20 - 10 ) x 4/100 ] + [( 0 - 10 ) x 93/100] = 4.5 + 1.4 + 0.4 - 9.3 = -$3

3 0
3 years ago
What basic economic question helps determine the career path of individuals?
Vlada [557]
Any option available ?

5 0
3 years ago
Round Hammer is comparing two different capital structures: An all-equity plan (Plan I) and a levered plan (Plan II). Under Plan
amid [387]

Answer:

A) total debt = $2,230,000 and it represents 175,000 - 125,000 = 50,000 outstanding shares

price per share = $2,230,000 / 50,000 = $44.60 per share

B) enterprise value = 175,000 x $44.60 =  $7,805,000

According to M&M proposition I, the enterprise value is the same with or without any outstanding debt. So the company's value is the same for both alternatives.

5 0
3 years ago
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