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ipn [44]
3 years ago
13

Work in Process, May 31 (75,000 units, 100% complete for direct materials; 20% complete for conversion costs). Costs incurred in

May Direct materials $ 342,000 Conversion costs $ 352,950 If Pitt Enterprises uses the weighted average method of process costing, compute the equivalent units for direct materials and conversion respectively for May.
Business
1 answer:
Anettt [7]3 years ago
6 0
The answer may be 5 but roynd to the nest 10
You might be interested in
Malkin corp. has no debt but can borrow at 8.75 percent. the firm’s wacc is currently 16 percent, and there is no corporate tax.
Artyom0805 [142]

Answer:

a.

16%

b.

17.3%

c.

23.25%

d.

16%

Explanation:

WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.

As have the cost of capital, we need to calculate the cost of equity.

Cost of Capital = (Cost of Equity x Weightage of equity) + (Cost of Debt x Weightage of Debt)

a.

No Debt

16% = (Cost of Equity x 1 ) + (8.75% x 0)

16% = Cost of Equity + 0

Cost of Equity = 16%

b.

15% Debt and Equity is 85% (100%-15%)

16% = (Cost of Equity x 85% ) + (8.75% x 15%)

0.16 = (Cost of Equity x 0.85) + 0.013125

0.16 - 0.013125 = Cost of Equity x 0.85

0.146875 = Cost of Equity x 0.85

Cost of Equity = 0.146875 / 0.85 = 0.17279

Cost of Equity = 17.3%

c.

50% Debt and Equity is 50% (100%-50%)

16% = (Cost of Equity x 50% ) + (8.75% x 50%)

0.16 = (Cost of Equity x 0.50) + 0.04375

0.16 - 0.04375 = Cost of Equity x 0.50

0.11625 = Cost of Equity x 0.50

Cost of Equity = 0.11625 / 0.50 = 0.2325

Cost of Equity = 23.25%

d.

WACC for b and c are 16%

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A project costs $12,800 and is expected to provide a real cash inflow of $10,000 at the end of each of years 1 through 5. Calcul
Lemur [1.5K]

Answer:

Net Present Value = $28756.79

Explanation:

First we need find the real rate of interest

Real rate of interest = (Nominal rate of interest - Inflation rate )

Real Rate of interest = (10.76% - 4%)

Real of Interest = 6.76%

Now using stream of cash flows and discount the at 6.76%

0 -12800              1.000        

1 10000               0.937

2 10000               0.877

3 10000               0.822

4 10000               0.770

5 10000               0.721

Through multiplying discount value with cash flow we get the discounted value of cash flows.

0 -12800      x        1.000      = -12800  

1 10000       x       0.937      =     9370

2 10000       x        0.877     =     8770

3 10000       x        0.822     =    8220

4 10000       x        0.770      =   7700

5 10000       x        0.721       =  7210

Adding the discounted cash flows we get the value of Net present value and that is equal to $28756.79

6 0
3 years ago
The following information for the past year for the Blaine Corporation has been provided:Fixed costs:Manufacturing$ 125, 000$125
natima [27]

Answer:

D. 76.6 %

Explanation:

Contribution Margin Ratio = Contribution / Sales × 100

<em>First Calculate the Contribution</em>

Contribution = Sales - Variable Costs

                     = (60,000 units × $ 12.40) -  ($110,000+$30,000+$34,000)

                     = $744,000 - $174,000

                     = $570,000

<em>Then Calculate Contribution Margin Ratio</em>

Contribution Margin Ratio = $570,000 / $744,000 × 100

                                           = 76.61290

                                           = 76.6 % ( 1 decimal)

5 0
3 years ago
"A customer is long the Swiss Franc at a cost of $.60 per SF. The customer wishes to place a collar on the position using PHLX S
tia_tia [17]

Answer:

To create the collar, the customer would: <u>buy 1 PHLX 59 SF Call and sell 1 PHLX 61 SF Call.</u>

Explanation:

The meaning of a "collar" is that a put is bought at a strike price that is less than the price of the underlying instrument (this implies that a floor has been put on the price of the instrument); and that a call is disposed at a strike price which is higher than the price of the underlying instrument (this indicates that a ceiling above which the instrument will be called away has been created).

When a collar is put on the price, it indicates that the customer is majorly giving a guarantee for the underlying instrument's minimum and maximum price.

This should make the net cost of the collar to be close to zero due to the fact that the two contracts are "out the money" and also because the premium paid to buy the put is offset by the premium received when the call was sold.

Therefore, since customer in the question wishes to place a collar on the position using PHLX SF FLEX options, he would <u>buy 1 PHLX 59 SF Call and sell 1 PHLX 61 SF Call</u> to create the collar.

3 0
3 years ago
Good morning everyone how yall doing today
elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]

Answer:

very good morning dear...

have a NYC day ahead... :)

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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