Answer:
Systolic on right
Systolic on left
So for this case we have more variation for the data of systolic on left compared to the data systolic on right but the difference is not big since 0.170-0.147 = 0.023.
Step-by-step explanation:
Assuming the following data:
Systolic (#'s on right) Diastolic (#'s on left)
117; 80
126; 77
158; 76
96; 51
157; 90
122; 89
116; 60
134; 64
127; 72
122; 83
The coefficient of variation is defined as " a statistical measure of the dispersion of data points in a data series around the mean" and is defined as:
And the best estimator is 
Systolic on right
We can calculate the mean and deviation with the following formulas:
[te]\bar x = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n X_i}{n}[/tex]
For this case we have the following values:
So then the coeffcient of variation is given by:
Systolic on left
For this case we have the following values:
So then the coeffcient of variation is given by:
So for this case we have more variation for the data of systolic on left compared to the data systolic on right but the difference is not big since 0.170-0.147 = 0.023.
Answer:
69
Step-by-step explanation:
If 46 is 2/3 then 1/3 should be 23 and 23 times 3 is 69.I hope this helps
Answer:
A = -10
Step-by-step explanation:
x^2 + 10x + 24 = 0
To find the roots, we need to factor the equation.
What 2 numbers multiply to 24 and add to 10
6*4 = 24
6+4 = 10
(x+6) (x+4)=0
Using the zero product property
x+6 = 0 x+4 = 0
x = -6 x = -4
We want the sum when the roots are added
-6+ -4 = -10
Answer: Your answer would be C) 32.1%
Step-by-step explanation:
With the number of successes needed to be 4 and the total amount of trials (games) for this to be achieved in being 6 you can calculate a percentage based on their currenting winning percentage of .623 (don't forget decimals can be percentages, just move the decimal point over) and you can input all of this into the binomial model equation to get your answer. Please do note also that it would be a different answer entirely if you were to use .500 (50%) as a winning percentage which would be the logical conclusion as any team has a 50/50 chance of winning a given game but instead the question is asking us to calculate this percentage off the already given winning percentage. After inputting the data into the model formula you can conclude the answer to be 32.1% chance of them winning 4 out of the next 6 games. I hope this has been of assistance to you :)
Have a wonderful rest of your day!
Answer:
14
Step-by-step explanation:
basically you multiply by two and get 14. The 8 is to throw you off
