Answer:
During the 1700s, people in different colonies produced different kinds of things to sell. For example, people in the southern colonies produced cotton and tobacco while people in the New England colonies produced ships and whale oil. People in the different colonies then sold the things they made to the people in the other colonies
How did this voluntary trade benefit people in both regions?
A. It made it possible for them to have things that they could not produce themselves.
B. It meant that they did not have to buy anything from England.
C. It meant that they did not have to sell anything to England
D. It made it possible for them to have things that they could not afford to pay for.
Explanation:
The answer is A because B said that they did not have to buy anything from England but england is the place that is producing and selling products and C is wrong because yes England my produce multiple products but England still needs resources and D is also wrong because they said they sold all the items and not that they were free
East Germany is the correct answer. B. (I just took the test)
The CORRECT answer is A and D
(notes: I have answered this three times now and explained why and how a and d is correct but since some people want to keep saying I'm wrong ill explain again :) my answer is 100% correct)
explanation: <span>God had promised David that his descendant would inherit his throne and establish his kingdom forever (2 Sam 7:12-16). This promise may be seen as an elaboration of the same promise that Jacob made to his son Judah in Gen 49:10, stating that Judah’s shall be the royal tribe and that it will produce a descendant would receive the obedience of the nations (note that David is a descendant of Judah).
Joseph and Mary are both from the tribe of Judah but Joseph isn't the paternal parent of Jesus he's his adopted father and Jesus cant get the title from mary according to Jewish law. so its an adopted title AND Jesus being a descendant of David is more of Davids legacy that is an honor David can brag about, God promised David Jesus would be his descendant, not vice-versa. AND him being related to Jesus does not change Jesus future or mean anything to the thing he was destined to. Jesus is the living word of god he IS the scripture he lived it and if he wasn't related to David that would not change. AND Jesus had nothing against the rabbinical law, in fact, he already knew it like the back of this hand the thing is he didn't HAVE to his knowledge was god given in the bible it states that Jesus didn't even really study the bible or go to classes that much because he already knew what he needed to. he still did study his faith and stuff while growing up but he didn't have to he WAS the law and IS the law.
THIS IS WHY C AND B ARE NOT CORRECT. at least not for Catholics or my personal Christian faith.
hope I helped :)
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The answer is C.
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