The reason that Britain did NOT colonize Malaysia and Burma was to prevent china from colonizing them instead.
<h3>
Why did the British and Burma separate from India?</h3>
British partitioned Burma from India in 1937 to weaken the Burmese nationalist movement. After World War II, under the leadership of U Aung San, this movement reached its pinnacle, and Burma gained independence on January 4, 1948.
<h3>
When did the British leave Burma?</h3>
In 1937 the British government separated Burma from India and granted it its constitution, independent of that of India; the masses interpreted this as proof that the British planned to exclude Burma from the next phase of Indian reform.
To learn more about the Burmese nationalist movement visit the link
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Answer:
The concept 'US imperialism' is accepted by most of the international community, both by politicians and historians. It is an unquestionable fact that the United States has had an imperialist behavior since the beginning of its formation as a country, and especially throughout the 20th century.
Imperialism can be defined as the "attitude and doctrine of those who advocate or practice the extension of the domination of one country over another or others by means of military, economic or political force." (source: RAE). So when the United States intervenes in Afghanistan or Iraq it is a form of imperialism, or when it supports military dictatorships in certain countries, or launches prevention wars (just in case) on other nations, it is imperialism as well. Imperialism through military force.
Explanation:
Because countries realized if they were economically tied to other countries if a war broke out their economy would be ruined.
south Vietnam took on a greater military role in the conflict. is your answer friend
