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Flauer [41]
4 years ago
7

Please help me I’m crying right now

Mathematics
2 answers:
Ilya [14]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

24 ft is the correct answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Semenov [28]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

24ft²

Step-by-step explanation:

Dude. Go back and relearn the concept man. This is the third time you've been asking the same subject.

Area of triangle = ½BH = ½(6)(8) = 24

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In order to determine the average price of hotel rooms in Atlanta, a sample of 64 hotels was selected. It was determined that th
kow [346]

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Look at image for question
kotegsom [21]

Answer:

r=0.5 or 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

if you multiply 0.5 to each Xs you can find out why r is 0.5

8 0
3 years ago
Marcia has $84 less than three times as much as sue. together they have $132. how much money does marcia have?
Brut [27]
Let x = sue
and then let 3x-84 = marcia
therefore
(x)+(3x-84)=132
4x-84=132
4x=216
x=54

however just solving for x doesnt completely solve. it only shows sues money because x = sue
for marcia
3x-84
3(54)-84
162-84
78

therefore Marcia has 78$.
5 0
4 years ago
The difference of two numbers is 8. When twice the first number is added to three times the second number, the result is 51. Wha
Naya [18.7K]
The answer is b. 15 & 7
8 0
3 years ago
A local grocery store chain has a sushi stand. That sushi stand makes samples for store customers to entice customers to purchas
Liula [17]

Answer: 0.99822

Step-by-step explanation:

Our inter-arrival time follows Poisson distribution with parameter 14 which is in hour so first we have to calculate this in minutes as we have to calculate probability in minutes.

So converting 14 into minutes will give  \frac{14}{60}=0.233

Let X=inter-arrival time between two customers

and here \lambda = 0.233

Probability(X is less than or equal to 2 minutes) = P(X=0) + P(X=1) + P(X=2)

Now the Poisson distribution has PDF = \frac{\exp ^{-\lambda }\times \lambda ^{X}}{X!}

So P(X = 0) = \frac{\exp ^{-0.233}\times 0.233^{0}}{0!} = 0.79215

P(X= 1) = \frac{\exp ^{-0.233}\times 0.233^{1}}{1!} = 0.18457

P(X=2) = \frac{\exp ^{-0.233}\times 0.233^{2}}{2!} = 0.02150

Now adding all three probability gives =  0.79215 +0.18457 + 0.02150=0.99822

3 0
3 years ago
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