Answer:
D = 7980.55
Explanation:
Since the borrower pays in 6 months wich is half a year, we calculate the semi-annual rate = 
= 
= 0.0035 = 0.35%
The effective semi-annual rate is, [(0.0035)⁶- 1] = 0.02118461
+
= 238000
+
= 238000
0.631744D = 238000 * 0.02118461
0.631744D = 5041.937
Therefore D = 7980.55
Answer:
The optimal bundle is 6 pairs of dress shoes and 3 pairs of Crocs.
Explanation:
From the question,
Allowance (M) = $450; Price of dress shoes, Pd = $50; Price of crocs, Pc = $50
Note: MRS-price ratio, MUC- marginal utility from consuming casual Crocs ,MUD- marginal utility from consuming dress shoes
Optimal bundle is determined where MRS = Price ratio
MRS = MUC/MUD = 20DC/10C2 = 2D/C
Price ratio = Pd/Pc = 50/50 = 1
So, 2D/C = 1
Therefore, C = 2D
Budget constraint: M = Pd*D + Pc*C
So, 50D + 50*(2D) = 450
50D + 100D = 150D = 450
So, D = 450/150 = 3
C = 2D = 2*3 = 6
Answer:
The correct answer is the circular flow model.
Explanation:
The circular flow model shows the movement of resources between different sectors in the economy. The firms or business hire factors of production from the households. In return, they make factor payments. They use these factors to produce goods and services. The households purchase these goods and services and pay by their factor incomes.
The government sector charges taxes from households and businesses and provides goods and services in return. The government also hires factors of production and make factor payments. It also purchases goods and services from the businesses and pays for it.
Answer:
Ke 0.08690 = 8.69%
Explanation:
<u>The capital assets price model formula(CAPM) is as follows:</u>
risk free = 4% = 4/100 = 0.04
market rate = 11% = 11/100 = 0. 11
premium market: (market rate - risk free) = (0.11-0.04) = 0.07
Beta(non diversifiable risk) 0.67
Ke 0.08690