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3 years ago

What is equivalent to y+0.32y

Mathematics

2 answers:

olasank [31]3 years ago

4 0

Y+0.32y
combine like terms:
=y+0.32y
=(y+0.32y)
=1.32y
so your answer is 1.32y

butalik [34]3 years ago

3 0

Your answer should be 1.32 y because 1y+0.32y=1.32y

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Can someone please help me

defon

9514 1404 393

Answer:

P = 50,000

r = 0.08

i = 0.02

K = 4

n = 20

t = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

In this formula, r is the annual interest rate, 8% or 0.08. K is the number of times the interest is compounded in a year. Since interest is compounded quarterly, K = 4.

r = 0.08

i = r/K = 0.08/4

i = 0.02

t is the number of years interest is compounded, so ...

t = 5

n = Kt = 4·5

n = 20

P is the principal amount invested:

P = 50,000

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3 years ago

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goldenfox [79]

The answer is 8x(11-2x)

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3 years ago

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AleksAgata [21]

Commutative property

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3 years ago

A real estate agent has 17 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a

Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

0.0011 = 0.11% probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

A real estate agent has 17 properties that she shows.

This means that $n = 17$

She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that $p = 0.5$

Compute the probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

This is

$P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)$

In which

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{17,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{17} \approx 0$

$P(X = 1) = C_{17,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{16} = 0.0001$

$P(X = 2) = C_{17,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{15} = 0.0010$

$P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0 + 0.0001 + 0.0010 = 0.0011$

0.0011 = 0.11% probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

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3 years ago

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Ghella [55]

Answer:

Option A, p

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Step 1: Identify the correct answer </u>

Since the value of the higher point is (6, 5). This means that the x-value or p is greater than q since the x-value will stay the same as 6. While the q value will become even smaller.

Answer: Option A, p

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3 years ago