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Allisa [31]
3 years ago
13

Pincus Associates uses the allowance method to account for bad debts. During 2021, its first year of operations, Pincus provided

a total of $267,000 of services on account. In 2021, the company wrote off uncollectible accounts of $10,700. By the end of 2021, cash collections on accounts receivable totaled $224,700. Pincus estimates that 15% of the accounts receivable balance at 12/31/2021 will prove uncollectible
Business
1 answer:
zysi [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

  • Assuming 15% of accounts receivable, the journal entry:  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 15,440  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 15,440

Explanation:

  • Pincus estimates that 15% of the accounts receivable  

Initial Balance  

Dr Accounts Receivable   $ 267,000

  • The company wrote off uncollectible accounts    

Dr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 10,700  

Cr Accounts Receivable   $ 10,700

  • Cash collections on accounts receivable  

Dr Cash $ 224,700  

Cr Accounts Receivable   $ 224,700

  • Adjusted Balance

Dr Accounts Receivable   $ 31.600

  • Assuming 15% of accounts receivable, the journal entry:  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 15.440  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 15.440

  • FINAL Balance  

Dr Accounts Receivable  $ 31.600  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 4.740

If the company applies the allowance method, it means that the account Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts must show as balance the 15% of accounts receivables as CREDIT.

Because the company has a debit balance in that account it's necessary to register an entry that compensate the DEBIT value and reflect A CREDIT estimated as 15% of account receivable.

Bad accounts are those credits granted by the company and there is no possibility of being charged.

When customers buy products on credits but the company cannot collect the debt, then it's necessary  to cancel the unpaid invoice as uncollectible.

One way is to directly cancel bad debts at the time it was decided that the credit is bad, the total amount reported as bad debt expenses negatively affect the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced by the same amount, less assets

The other way is to determine a percentage of the total amount of accounts receivable as bad debts, there are many ways to analyze accounts receivable and calculate the value of bad debts.

When the company has the percentage of uncollectible accounts, the required journal entry is Bad Expenses (debit) with Reserve for Bad Accounts (credit)

At the time of cancellation, since the expenses were recognized before, we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit)  with accounts receivable (credit), with this we are recognizing the bad credit of the company.

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pishuonlain [190]

Answer:

reduce its cash account by $1875.

reduce its cash account by $410.

Explanation:

As for the information provided,

When we tally the cash balance with that of bank balance,

Outstanding checks which were already deducted in cash book will be added as yet outstanding and payment not made.

= + 3,025

Deposits in transit were already added in cash book, although yet not added to bank balance, thus deducted

= - 4,900

= +3,025 - 4,900 = - $1875

This means cash will be reduced by $1,875

Further NSF check is already added in cash but not yet added in bank = - $310

Further bank has deducted charges but in cash book not recorded thus it will be deducted now = - $100

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3 years ago
Personal property that is attached to the land or improvements as to become part of the property is known as what?
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Answer: Chattels Real

Explanation:

Chattels Real are those items of personal property that extends to their owner as an interest in real property (e.g. contracts to purchases, and options, least, mortgages) or that are attached to real property (e.g. trade fixtures)

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4 years ago
1. For a given meal, a chef may prefer grilling to baking because it
tangare [24]

[] Answer []

\boxed{Produces \ more \ intense \ flavor}

[] Explanation []

For a given meal, a chef may prefer grilling to baking because it <u><em>produces more intense flavor</em></u>.

Chef - Cooks instead of bakes (Uses stovetop)

Baker - Bakes instead of cooks (Uses oven)

       When cooking, you are making meals and entrés, instead of pastries and baked goods. When cooking, a chef always wants to let out he most flavor he can. This is why he grills. When grilling, you cook your food in oil, butter, marinade, etc. All these flavors soak into the food, causing it to erupt with flavor. This is why when a chef cooks meat, he lets it soak in marinade, butter, wine, herbs, etc. first, then cooks them in it second. This entices the flavor, causing it to to be more tasteful and delightful.

       A chef prefers to grill because it pulls out the flavor, where-as baking is a slower, less intense method of producing / cooking food. Baking is more bland and does not create a superb audience. When cooking something, you are allowing your food to soak in grease, wine, etc. When baking something, your food sits there slowly without any interaction too much flavor.

\boxed{[] \ Eclipsed \ []}

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4 years ago
9 . Implied interest rate and period Consider the case of the following annuities, and the need to compute either their expected
vodomira [7]

Answer:

IRR 6% for Jabob

His friend will need 12 years saving cash to obtain their collegue funds.

Explanation:

We will solve for the rate being the annuity of 3 payment of 800

and the present value 2,138.41

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\  

C 800

time 3

PV 2,138.41

rate ?

800 \times \frac{1-(1+x)^{-3} }{x} = 2,138.41\\  

To solve we can use excel, a financial calculator or trial and error

For excel we will do the following:

write the list of cash through the loan life:

-2,138.41

+800

+800

+800

then we write in the empy cell

=IRR(

select the values and press enter

This will give the IRR which is 6%

For the second assignment:

we need to solve for time:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\  

C    3,800

time            n  

rate            0.06

PV $31,897

3800 \times \frac{1-(1+0.06)^{-n} }{0.06} = 31,897\\  

 We work out the formula:

(1+0.06)^{-n} = \frac{31,897\times 0.06}{3,800}

Now we solve the right side and apply logarithmic properties

-n = \frac{log0.503636842&#10;}{log1.06}

-n = -11.77128325

n = 11.77

It will take 12 years to obtain their target amount

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4 years ago
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Answer:

bribery      

Explanation:

Bribery, the act of offering, granting, accepting, or authorizing to receive payments or any other object of consideration with the dishonest intent of manipulating a government official in performing his work duties. If money is given or agreed in return for a dishonest act, each act does not have to be done by the professional concerned.

While bribery primarily included contact with judges, its concept has already been extended to provide acts by all types of government representatives, from municipal to federal level, and to include all federal employees.            

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3 years ago
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