True because you can multiply a number to get 40 such as 8 which means 5 was helped to get 40. So that is why 5 is a multiple
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
so to make infinite many solutions.. the lines have to be the same line... so the 1st equation would just be a multiple of the 2nd.... like 2x... like that..or even 1x.. counts.. so the exact same equation
1 => C
2 => A
3 => D
4 => E
5 =>B
2nd picture: No solution means the lines are parallel but not on top of as the last 5 equations were
6=> 5/4x -10 then a parallel line has the same slope but a different off set
so => 5/4x-5
7=> -8x + 12
so => -8x +1
8 => 4x + y = 7
y=-4x + 7
=> -4x +2
9=> sum of A+B=8 can A+B also be 10 NO!!! >:/ grrr if the 2nd set of numbers were C+D =10 then yes.. of course
10=> sum of A + B =8 can A-B also be 8 ? no
3(x+6)>8-(x-7)
3x+18>8-x+7
2x+18>15
2x>-3
X>-3/2
