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Ber [7]
3 years ago
14

How do you get the number 50 with the numbers 2,3,6,8 with using all numbers and only using them once.

Mathematics
1 answer:
AleksandrR [38]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Impossible

Step-by-step explanation:

You can write 50 as

=(6 \times 8)+2

But 3 is not used in this representation

But it is mentioned in the question that all number must be used at least once

Therefore it is not possible

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(2pm^-1q^0)^-4 • 2m ^-1 p^3 / 2pq^2
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Answer:

\dfrac{m^3}{16p^2q^2}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

(2pm^{-1}q^0)^{-4}\cdot \dfrac{ 2m^{-1} p^3}{2pq^2}

1.

m^{-1}=\dfrac{1}{m}

2.

q^0=1

3.

2pm^{-1}q^0=2p\cdot \dfrac{1}{m}\cdot 1=\dfrac{2p}{m}

4.

(2pm^{-1}q^0)^{-4}=\left(\dfrac{2p}{m}\right)^{-4}=\left(\dfrac{m}{2p}\right)^4=\dfrac{m^4}{(2p)^4}=\dfrac{m^4}{16p^4}

5.

m^{-1}=\dfrac{1}{m}

6.

2m^{-1} p^3=2\cdot \dfrac{1}{m}\cdot p^3=\dfrac{2p^3}{m}

7.

\dfrac{ 2m^{-1} p^3}{2pq^2}=\dfrac{\frac{2p^3}{m}}{2pq^2}=\dfrac{2p^3}{m}\cdot \dfrac{1}{2pq^2}=\dfrac{p^2}{mq^2}

8.

(2pm^{-1}q^0)^{-4}\cdot \dfrac{ 2m^{-1} p^3}{2pq^2}=\dfrac{m^4}{16p^4}\cdot \dfrac{p^2}{mq^2}=\dfrac{m^3}{16p^2q^2}

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3 years ago
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