Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
Because the price is below equilibrium the quantity will fall and shortage will ocour. Because of that the price in the black market will become even higher than it was before the price control, making the price control counter productive.
So this additional demand is met at much higher prices than legal market.
Answer: a form of government expense that is not made in exchange for a currently produced good or service.
Explanation:
Transfer payment are the goods or services that are supplied to the residents of a country. They're the form of government expense that is given to people in the society and such payments are not made due to the exchange of goods or services.
Examples of transfer payments include unemployment benefits, Social Security, etc. The reason behind transfer payments is to help in the redistribution of income and to help the less privileged in the society.
Answer: Option c
Explanation: In simple words, the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) is a model used to determine an asset's hypothetically suitable necessary return rate to decide to attach assets to a diversified portfolio.
The equation takes into consideration the exposure of the asset to non-verifiable uncertainty , also expressed by the quantity beta (β) in the financial industry, as well as the expected market return and the expected return of a risk-free hypothetical asset.
Hence from the above we can conclude that the correct option is .
The answer is onboarding.
There are normally five stages of the employment cycle. They are recruiting, onboarding, developing, retaining and offboarding. Training falls into the onboarding category when you are starting with the company and receiving the training that you need in order to do the job.
Answer:
The answer is 7.37%
Explanation:
Solution
Given that
Bond per value = future value =$1000
The current price = $1,066.57
Time = 22 years * 2
=44 semi-annual periods
The year of maturity = 6.78%/2 = 3.39%
Thus
The coupon rate is computed by first calculating the amount of coupon payment.
So
By using a financial calculator, the coupon payment is calculated below:
FV= 1,000
PV= -1,066.57
n= 44
I/Y= 3.39
Now we press the PMT and CPT keys (function) to compute the payment (coupon)
What was obtained is 36.83 (value)
Thus
The annual coupon rate is: given as:
= $36.83*2/ $1,000
= $73.66/ $1,000
= 0.0737*1,00
=7.366% or 7.37%
Therefore 7.37% is the bond's coupon rate.
