Answer:
31.47%
Explanation:
Total investment = 4000 + 3000 +9000 = $16,000
% of investment in A = 4000/16000 = 25%
% of investment in B = 3000/16000 = 18.75%
% of investment in Asset beta and risk-free asset = 100% - 25% -18.75% = 56.25%
Let the % of investment in asset with beta of 1.74 is A, % of investment in risk free asset is B.
We have the following simultaneous equations:
0.9 = (0.25 x 1.47) + (0.1875 x 0.54) + (A x 1.74) + (B x 0)
A+B = 56.25%
From the first equation, we get A = 24.78%
--> B = 56.25% - 24.78% = 31.47%
*** Note: Portfolio beta is the weighted sum of individual asset betas, according to the proportions of the investments in the portfolio
*** Note: Beta of risk free asset is 0
Answer: 299750
Explanation:
Based on no-arbitrage approach, future price should be equal to spot price compounded by risk-free rate.
Spot price = $110
Risk-free rate = 9%
Future price = 110*(1+9%) = 119.9
For 2500 shares = 119.9*2500 = 299750
This is an example of insider trading, which is using private company data or information to make improper gains.
Answer:
The correct option is D
Explanation:
External cost is the form of an expense which occur while consuming or producing the goods and services that imposes the cost or expense ( with negative effect) on the third party.
If there are the external costs while consuming the good, then the social costs would be greater than the private cost.
So, the external cost is defined as the cost that is imposed without any compensation on someone other than the person who cause or incur it.
Snowballing her payments according to the highest interest rate or making fixed payments I'm not sure between those two
