Answer:
The journals entry to record depreciation on the equipment for 2016 will be:
Debit Depreciation expense $14,000
Credit Accumulated depreciation $14,000
<em>(To record depreciation expense for Year 2016)</em>
Explanation:
Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / Estimated useful life = ($150,000 - $10,000) / 10 years = $14,000 yearly depreciation expense. This applies to Years 2015 and 2016.
The change in the estimate in Year 2017 will not affect the depreciation expense for 2016 based on the previous parameters,
Answer:
True
Explanation:
To illustrate how the sum-of-the-digits method allocates interest we can use a lease example:
You are the lessor and you will lease a machine during 4 years. The lease requires 4 equal payments of $100,000 at the beginning of the year. After the lease, the asset's salvage value = $0.
The asset's current value = $300,000, so total interests received = $100,000
Using the sum-of-the-digits method, you will allocate interest as follows:
- year 1 = 3/6 x $100,000 = $50,000
- year 2 = 2/6 x $100,000 = $33,333
- year 3 = 1/6 x $100,000 = $17,000
The largest portion of interests is allocated during the beginning of the loan.
Answer:
The firm set as the required rate of return for the project is 14.732%
Explanation:
For computing the required rate of return, the following formula should be used which is shown below:
= Risk free rate of return + (Beta × market risk premium) + adjustment
where,
Risk free rate of return is 4.1%
Beta is 1.19
Market risk premium is 7.8%
Adjustment is 1.35%
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value wold be equal to
= 4.1% + (1.19 × 7.8%)+ 1.35%
= 4.1% + 9.28% + 1.35%
= 14.732%
The standard deviation is irrelevant. Therefore, it is not considered in the computation part.
Hence, the firm set as the required rate of return for the project is 14.732%
Answer: The Break-Even Point will reduce from $4,285.71 to $4,125
Explanation:
To get the Break-Even Point we can divide Fixed Assets by the Contribution margin.
The Contribution Margin is the Selling Price minus the Variable Cost.
For Scenario 1 the Break-Even Point will be,
= 15,000 / ( 6 - 2.50)
= $4,285.71
For Scenario 2 the Break-Even Point is,
= 16,500 / 6.5 -2.5
= $4,125
The Break-Even Point for Scenario 2 means that even though the higher Fixed Costs could have led to a higher Break-Even Point, the higher price contributed more than the fixed costs did and led to an ultimately lower Break-Even Point than the first Scenario.
Answer: A. Dollars are printed on paper and have value because the government says they have value.
Explanation: Commodity backed money is a situation where by the value of money is backed up by its purchasing power with which it can be traded with at request. The supply of many can not be more than the purchasing power the country holds.
