Answer:
a). M1=$808 billion
b). M2=1,068 billion
Explanation:
M1 is the money supply that is the most liquid and is or can be easily converted into cash. The formula for calculating M1 is;
M1=C+D+T+S
where;
M1=money supply
C=currency held outside banks
D=checkable deposits
T=traveler's checks
S=small-denomination time deposits
In our case;
M1=unknown
C=$354 billion
D=$250 billion
T=$4 billion
S=$200 billion
replacing;
M1=(354+250+4+200)=$808 billion
M1=$808 billion
M2 includes elements of M1 and additional money supply that are near liquid. The formula is;
M2=M1+savings deposit+mutual funds
where;
M1=$808 billion
savings=$100 billion
retail money market mutual funds=$160
replacing;
M2=(808+100+160)=1,068 billion
M2=1,068 billion
If sally is creative then being a poet would make the most sense
Answer:
Explanation:
a)
The YTM of the bond at par value is equals to its coupon rate, 8.75%. Other things being equal, this 4% coupon rate bond will be more eye-catching as the coupon rate is lower than the current market yields, and its price is far below the call price. So, if yields drop, capital gains on the bond will not be restricted by the call price.
b)
If an investor foresees that yields will fall considerably, the 4% bond proposes a better expected return.
c)
Implicit call protection is offered in the sense that any likely fall in yields would not be nearly enough to make the firm consider calling the bond. In this sense, the call feature is almost irrelevant
Answer:
4.70%
Explanation:
According to the given situation, the computation of dividend yield is shown below:-
Dividend Yield = Expected dividend ÷ Current price
where,
expected dividend is $1.82
And, the current price is $38.70
Now place the values to the above formula
So, the dividend yield is
= $1.82 ÷ $38.70
= 0.0470
or
= 4.70%
Therefore for computing the dividend yield we simply applied the above formula.
I think intellectual curiosity is not a reason,
