Answer: $1392
Explanation:
The depreciation rate under straight line is =1/5=0.2
The depreciation rate under double declining is = 0.2 × 2 = 0.4
Depreciation expense for the first year = 0.4 × $5800 = $2320.
At the beginning of year two, net book value = $5800 - $2320 = $3480
Depreciation expense for year two = 0.4 × $3480 = $1392
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "D": $24.
Explanation:
Opportunity cost can be defined as the cost of the best next available option after taking another decision in regards to a situation. It is also the return that the chosen option provides compared to the return that could have provided the option that was forgone.
In this case, choosing to go to the local carnival will represent losing one hour of working as a coach assistant ($15). Besides, as there is a $9 admission fee to the carnival, you will need to spend that money. Thus, the total opportunity cost of going to the carnival instead of working is $24 (<em>$15+$9=$24</em>).
Answer:
a) Valuation of Ending Inventory
The total cost of consignment = $28980
Cost of Freezers= 60 freezers *$470= $28200
Shipment Costs $ 780
Per unit Cost of Consignment= $28980 / 60= $ 483
The inventory value of the units unsold in the hands of the consignee
= (60 units - 30 units )* 483= $ 14490
b) Profit for the Consignor
Sales 30 units at $800 $24000
<u>CGS 30 units at 483 14490
</u>
<u>Gross Profit 9510
</u>
Less
Advertising $200
Total installation costs $350
<u>Commision 6% of 24000= $ 1440 1990
</u>
<u>Net Profit $7520
</u>
<u />
<u>c) Remittance was made of $7520
</u>
The stage where resumes are scanned quickly to allow for many candidates to be eliminated is Stage 1.
<h3>What happens in Stage 1 of resume review?</h3>
When a job is posted, the company usually gets a lot of applications from people.
This is why stage 1 involves the company looking through and eliminating a lot of resumes so that only more needed ones remain.
Find out more on resume review at brainly.com/question/1100786.
#SPJ4
Answer:
A) 5.22 percent
Explanation:
The Pretax cost of debt is the Yield to maturity (YTM) of bond.
Using a financial calculator , you can solve for the YTM with the following inputs;
Face value ; FV = 1000
Maturity of bond; N = 15
Annual coupon payment; PMT = coupon rate * Face value = 6%*1000 = 60
Current price; PV = $1,080
then compute annual interest rate; CPT I/Y = 5.22%