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allochka39001 [22]
3 years ago
10

How many feet are in 96 inches

Mathematics
2 answers:
Alex_Xolod [135]3 years ago
8 0
Ninty-Six Inches is the same as Eight Feet.
Romashka [77]3 years ago
8 0


If there is 12 inches in 1 foot, let's solve --

You divide 96 by your 12 inches, or, 1 foot to find your answer.

96 ÷ 12 = 8 feet.

Final answer -- 8 feet = 96 inches

Want to check your answer? All you really do is multiply 12 by 8 and you still get 96 inches

12 × 8 = 96 inches. Now we know we are correct!

↑   ↑   ↑    Hope this helps! :D

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Find the length of GF
Cerrena [4.2K]
By the Pythagorean Theorem:

The square of the hypotenuse (longest side) of a right triangle is equal to the sum of the side lengths squared, or mathematically:

h^2=x^2+y^2, where x and y are the side lengths and h is the length of the hypotenuse, in this case:

9.4^2=6.8^2+GF^2

GF^2=9.4^2-6.8^2

GF^2=42.12

GF=√42.12 units

GF≈6.49 units (to nearest hundredth of a unit)
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Plleeaassee help it is URGENT MAATHH HELP PLEASE WILL GIVE 5 STARS ON ALL CORRECT ANSWERS, MARK AS BEST ANSWER AND SAY THANKS
lara [203]
Using Pythagoras in the first question
c=\sqrt{16 ^{2} + 4^{2} } =16.4924
which is approximately 16.5
for the second question
we also use Pythagoras
b^2=c^2-a^2
\sqrt{13^{2}-12^2}=5


4 0
3 years ago
Line s passes through points (7, 10) and (2, 14). Line t is parallel to line s. What is the slope of line t?
notsponge [240]

Answer:

The slope of line t is -4/5.

Step-by-step explanation:

m=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

m=(14-10)/(2-7)

m=4/-5

Parallel lines have same slopes.

4 0
3 years ago
Find the unknow measures of y and x.​
Yanka [14]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  x = 2 m

  y = 30°

Step-by-step explanation:

The side lengths of ΔDEF are 3/9 = 1/3 of those of ΔABC.

  x = DF = 1/3(AB) = (1/3)(6 m)

  x = 2 m

__

Angle measures of ΔDEF are the same as those of the corresponding angles of ΔABC.

  y = ∠B = ∠E = 30°

  y = 30°

8 0
3 years ago
A player of a video game is confronted with a series of four opponents and an 80% probability of defeating each opponent. Assume
mixer [17]

Answer:

(a) 0.4096

(b) 0.64

(c) 0.7942

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

P(W)=0.80

Then the probability that the player losses is,

P(L)=1-P(W)=1-0.80=0.20

The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

All the possible ways the player can win is: {L, WL, WWL, WWWL and WWWW)

(a)

The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats all 4 opponents) = P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)=[P(W)]^{4} =(0.80)^{4}=0.4096

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = 1-P(L)-P(WL)

                                    =1-(0.20)-(0.80\times0.20)\\=1-0.20-0.16\\=0.64

Thus, the probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is 0.64.

(c)

Let <em>X</em> = number of times the player defeats all 4 opponents.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)

The probability distribution of binomial is:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (<em>X</em> ≥ 1) = 1 - P (<em>X</em> < 1)

             = 1 - P (<em>X</em> = 0)

             =1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

3 0
3 years ago
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