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STatiana [176]
3 years ago
14

A taxpayer sells a warehouse for a recognized gain. Depreciation had been properly claimed on the property based on the straight

-line method over a 39-year recovery period. Will the same amount of depreciation recapture result whether the taxpayer is an individual or a C corporation? Explain.
Business
1 answer:
Vikentia [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

No, it will be different. There will not be any depreciation recapture for an individual taxpayer if the recognized profit is under $1250 with respect to the straight-line depreciation method and the service after 1986. However, a depreciation recapture will be treated from the recognized profit for a C corporation for sales that is approximately $1250 or more.

Explanation:

There will not be any depreciation recapture for an individual taxpayer if the recognized profit is under $1250 with respect to the straight-line depreciation method and the service after 1986. However, a depreciation recapture will be treated from the recognized profit for a C corporation for sales that is approximately $1250 or more.

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9. Assume that Cane expects to produce and sell 97,000 Alphas during the current year. A supplier has offered to manufacture and
fenix001 [56]

It is sort of outsourcing exercise which is executed as a cost controlling measure thereby enabling management to focus on critical matters.

Explanation:

Here, if in the given case CANE outsources manufacturing activity to an established supplier it can save on hiring factory and cost and lab our overheads and can effectively focus on more critical functions including sales and strengthening supply chain management .

They can effectively deploy capital to more productive options.

This process if considered after due diligence will enable it to improve its financial position.

It only needs to ensure that supplier is committed to service, quality and delivery with flexibility so that financial benefits syncs with the set of expectations.

8 0
4 years ago
Crisp Cookware's common stock is expected to pay a dividend of $3 per share at the end of this year; its beta is 0.9; the risk-f
slavikrds [6]

Answer:

The answer is $41.21

Explanation:

Required Rate of Return = Risk Free Rate + Beta*(Market Risk Premium)= 5.2% + 0.9 * 6% = 10.6%

Cost of Equity = D1/Current Stock Price + Growth Rate

10.6% = $3/$40 +g

g = 3.1%

Stock Price After 3 Years = Current Stock Price*Growth Rate= $40 * (1.031)= $41.21

7 0
3 years ago
What are the underlying reasons for the law to continue to make distinctions between real and personal property, intangible and
kap26 [50]

Answer:

In trying to made distinction between the real and personal property as the law provided, there is need to define both terms.

Real properties are those properties that can not be move from one place to another, I.e, they are immovable. Example of such property is land and the building constructed on it or agricultural practices on a particular land. In some textbooks, they are regarded as fixed asset such as a manufacturing plants which are in most cases not likely to be removable after the foundation as been laid due to the heaviness of the machines.

While

Personal property are those properties that are movable and example of such is money.

So, in both properties, the nature of use and level of controls the owner have over them differs and that is why the law provided specific rules and regulations over their ownership, possession and or transferrability. As for Real Properties, the law is very strict about it since it is a rigid property and its transferrability requires deed of agreement which much must be signed by witnesses from all parties involves and registered at the deed registry. The law also provides very strict tax regulations on landed property. As for the personal property, the regulation on it is less compare to that of real since it's movable and can be asset by the owner at any time and transfer of ownership is flexible. So, the law will continue to make distinction between these two types of property as they requires different regulations and their level of control differs.

Also for the tangible and intangible property, the law will continue to make distinction between them since one can be seen and the other can't.

Tangible properties are those properties that can be seen, touch, and physically acquired or taken into possession. Example is land, Building or workshop, Automobile. e.t.c

While,

Intangible properties are those properties that can not seen physically but exist on papers. Their impact can only be felt. Example of such properties are intellectual properties that are backed by copyrights, Academic presentations protected from plagiarism, checks and certificates of deposits.

From their definition, it is important to state that law will continue to make distinction between them since the control of ownership differs.

4 0
3 years ago
Your company sells consulting services in legal forecasting to multinationals studying foreign market entries. In some countries
enot [183]

Chances are that when your company, which sells consulting services to multinationals, is forecasting legal decisions in <u>domestic markets</u>, the predictions will be MUCH MORE accurate than when forecasting legal decisions in <u>foreign markets</u>.

<h3>What is the difference between domestic and foreign markets?</h3>

The difference between domestic and foreign markets is that a company offering forecasting legal decisions will be very more familiar with the domestic market than the decisions that can be taken in foreign markets.

Chances are that when your company, which sells consulting services to multinationals, is forecasting legal decisions in <u>domestic markets</u>, the predictions will be MUCH MORE accurate than when forecasting legal decisions in <u>foreign markets</u>.

Learn more about domestic and foreign markets at brainly.com/question/15115779

8 0
3 years ago
A bond indenture is
Lena [83]

Answer:

C. A contract between the corporation issuing the bonds and the bond trustee, who is acting on behalf of the bondholders.

Explanation:

A bond indenture specifies the contract which is between the bond issuers and bond holders. The contract specifies all the obligations owed by the issuers to the bond holders.

In this case the right definition of indenture would be a contract between the corporation issuing the bonds and the bond trustee, who is acting on behalf of the bondholders.

Hope that helps.

5 0
3 years ago
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