A. m∠R = m∠S B. m∠R + m∠S = 180° C. m∠R + m∠S = m∠P + m∠ this is to that to.

Which of the following functions is the inverse of the function {(1,2),(3,4),(6,8)} A.{(6,8),(3,4),(1,2) B.{(2,1),(4,3),(1,2)} C

slega [8]

C. that was so easy yo

7 0

3 years ago

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How to solve this problem

gulaghasi [49]

You would put the 5 minutes over the 200 yard section

4 0

4 years ago

60 percent of what number is 30? StartFraction 60 times 2 Over 30 times 2 EndFraction = StartFraction 120 Over 60 EndFraction St

lakkis [162]

Answer:

C.

Step-by-step explanation:

I answerd this on Edgenuity and got it right.

7 0

4 years ago

Use the unit circle to evaluate these expressions:

sergeinik [125]

Answer:

a) We can remove the complete rotations around the unitary circle like this, because we know that one complete revolution is equivalent to $2\pi$ :

$17 \pi/4 - 2\pi = \frac{9\pi}{4} -2\pi = \pi/4$

For this case we know that $sin (\pi/4) = \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}$

So then $sin(\frac{17 \pi}{4}) = \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}$

b) We can remove the complete rotations around the unitary circle like this, because we know that one complete revolution is equivalent to $2\pi$ :

$19 \pi/6 - 2\pi = \frac{7\pi}{6}$

For this case we know that $cos (\pi/6) = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$

And we know that $\frac{7\pi}{6}$ is on the III quadrant since is equivalent to 210 degrees. And on the III quadrant the cosine is negative. So then $cos(\frac{19 \pi}{6}) = -\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$

c) For this case that any factor of $\pi$ the sin function is equal to 0.

So from definition of tan we have this:

$tan (450\pi) = \frac{sin(450 \pi)}{cos(450 \pi)}= \frac{0}{cos(450\pi)}= 0$

Step-by-step explanation:

a. sin (17pi / 4 )

We can remove the complete rotations around the unitary circle like this, because we know that one complete revolution is equivalent to $2\pi$ :

$17 \pi/4 - 2\pi = \frac{9\pi}{4} -2\pi = \pi/4$

For this case we know that $sin (\pi/4) = \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}$

So then $sin(\frac{17 \pi}{4}) = \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}$

b. cos (19pi / 6 )

We can remove the complete rotations around the unitary circle like this, because we know that one complete revolution is equivalent to $2\pi$ :

$19 \pi/6 - 2\pi = \frac{7\pi}{6}$

For this case we know that $cos (\pi/6) = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$

And we know that $\frac{7\pi}{6}$ is on the III quadrant since is equivalent to 210 degrees. And on the III quadrant the cosine is negative. So then $cos(\frac{19 \pi}{6}) = -\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$

c. tan(450pi)

For this case that any factor of $\pi$ the sin function is equal to 0.

So from definition of tan we have this:

$tan (450\pi) = \frac{sin(450 \pi)}{cos(450 \pi)}= \frac{0}{cos(450\pi)}= 0$

4 0

3 years ago

Estimate a 15% tip $9.89

Alexus [3.1K]

$1.48 is the exact answer

6 0

3 years ago

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