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MrRa [10]
2 years ago
9

Which statement best describes the rationale behind giving large amounts of financial aid to areas like Europe and later Latin A

merica? A) The United States felt if Europe was financially stable then communism would be less likely to spread. B) The United States wanted Europe to be in debt to them so they could better control the countries politically. C) The United States feared that if Europe did not recover financially quickly then World War III might break out. D) The United States feared that if Europe could not pay back its’ war debts to the Soviet Union then they would be occupied by the Soviets.
Business
1 answer:
notka56 [123]2 years ago
3 0

Answer: A) The United States felt if Europe was financially stable then communism would be less likely to spread.

Explanation: One of the major goal of the United States in giving financial aids to Europe and Latin America was to assist in rebuilding the war-torn regions, remove trade barriers, modernize industry, improve European prosperity, and prevent the spread of Communism. This was known as the European Recovery Plan in 1948 which was to send foreign aid to Western Europe. During this period, the United States transferred over $12 billion dollars in economic recovery programs to Western European economies after the end of World War II.

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Sales revenue$ 4,000Purchases of direct materials$ 400Direct labor$ 450Manufacturing overhead$ 620Operating expenses$ 650Beginni
dlinn [17]

Answer:

The correct answer is D: $1900

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Sales revenue$ 4,000

Purchases of direct materials$ 400

Direct labor$ 450

Manufacturing overhead $ 620

Operating expenses$ 650

Beginning raw materials inventory$ 200

Ending raw materials inventory$ 180

Beginning work in process inventory$ 320

Ending work in process inventory$ 410

Beginning finished goods inventory$ 250

Ending finished goods inventory$ 200

First, we need to calculate the cost of goods manufactured:

cost of goods manufactured= beginning work in process + direct materials + direct labor + manufacturing overhead - ending work in process

Direct materials= beginning inventory + purchase - ending inventory= 200 + 400 - 180= 420

cost of goods manufactured= 320 + 420 + 450 + 620 - 410= $1400

Now, we can calculate the cost of goods sold:

COGS= beginning finished inventory + cost of goods manufactured - ending finished goods

COGS= 250 + 1400 - 200= 1450

Operating income= sales  - COGS - operating expenses

Operating income= 4000 - 1450 - 650= $1900

3 0
3 years ago
What techniques did managers use to promote rock & roll?
o-na [289]
They used <span> Independent record labels to their advantage.</span>
5 0
3 years ago
Floyd Industries stock has a beta of 1.25. The company just paid a dividend of $.40, and the dividends are expected to grow at 5
stiks02 [169]

Answer:

5.62%

13.75%

Explanation:

According to the DDM method,

the value of a stock = [dividend x ( 1 + growth rate)] / [cost of equity - growth rate]

67 = 0.4(1.05) / r - 0.05

multiply both sides of the equation by r -0.05

67(r - 0.05) = 0.42

divide both sides of the equation by 67

r - 0.05 = 0.006269

r = 0.0563

= 5.63%

b. the cost of equity using the capm method =

risk free rate of return + beta x ( expected return - risk free return)

5% + 1.25 x (12 - 5) = 13.75%

3 0
2 years ago
MC Qu. 107 The following information is available... The following information is available for a company's utility cost for ope
lianna [129]

Answer:

Variable cost Per Unit $2.50

Explanation:

Total cost at high activity = $8100

Total Cost at Low activity = $3600

Total Units at high activity = 2400

Total Units at low Activity = 600

Variable Cost Per Unit =  (High activity total Cost - Low activity total cost ) / (High Activity unit - low activity units)

Variable cost per unit = ($8100 - $3600) / (2400 - 600) = $4500 / 1800 = $2.50

7 0
3 years ago
if, after one year, the yield to maturity on a multiyear coupon bond that was issued at par is lower than the coupon rate, what
maw [93]

When the YTM is lower than the bond's coupon rate, the bond's market value exceeds its par value (premium bond). Bonds are selling at a discount if their coupon rate is smaller than their YTM. A bond is trading at par if its coupon rate is equal to its yield to maturity (YTM).

<h3>What is the cost of a $1,000 par value, three year, zero-coupon bond?</h3>

(a) A three-year zero-coupon bond with a face value of $1,000 would have a present value (or price) of 874.69 with a yield of 4.564 percent.

<h3>What is the yield to maturity on a discount bond with a $1000 face value that will mature in a year and sell for $800?</h3>

The yield to maturity is determined using the following formula with the current price of $800: 800 = 1000 / (yield to maturity plus one) Yield to maturity Equals 1 plus yield.  Yield until maturity equals 25%

To Know more about coupon rate

brainly.com/question/16913107

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5 0
1 year ago
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