Which of these is the BEST explanation for why slave owners during the Antebellum period might allow their slaves to practice Ch
ristianity? A) Slave owners wanted to give the slaves the same hope they received from Christianity.
B) Slaves could use the Bible to learn how to read and become better members of society.
C) Slave owners believed that Christianizing their slaves would make the slaves more passive.
D) Slaves often would go on strike if they were not allowed to go to church or religious ceremonies.
I may not know the exact answer, but i'm leaning towards C because it's one of the few answers that seems reasonable.
B is wrong because it's exactly the opposite; their owners didn't want slaves to get smart, they thought it was easier to control them if they were ignorant and didn't know how to read.
