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Triss [41]
3 years ago
13

I have ti find the two solutions to this equation. This problem deals with imaginary numbers i

Mathematics
1 answer:
denpristay [2]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

x = \dfrac{1}{6} + \dfrac{i\sqrt{47}}{6}   or   x = \dfrac{1}{6} - \dfrac{i\sqrt{47}}{6}

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the quadratic formula.

x = \dfrac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2 - 4ac}}{2a}

x = \dfrac{-(-1) \pm \sqrt{(-1)^2 - 4(3)(4)}}{2(3)}

x = \dfrac{1 \pm \sqrt{1 - 48}}{6}

x = \dfrac{1 \pm \sqrt{-47}}{6}

x = \dfrac{1}{6} \pm \dfrac{i\sqrt{47}}{6}

x = \dfrac{1}{6} + \dfrac{i\sqrt{47}}{6}   or   x = \dfrac{1}{6} - \dfrac{i\sqrt{47}}{6}

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Jerry ate 1,070 calories total at breakfast. He ate a cup of yogurt that had 150 calories in it and some granola. Each cup of gr
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Answer:

4 cups that's how many cups Jerry ate

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4 years ago
Find 1/9 as many as 3 divided by 5
kari74 [83]
1/9 times 3/1 = 1/3. Now divide 1/3 by 5 or multiply by 1/5 and you get 1/15. There's your answer
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3 years ago
Determine the solubility for cuc2o4(s) in pure water. Ksp for is 2. 9 × 10^-8
Elena-2011 [213]

Based on the elements and charges in Copper (II) Oxalate, CuC₂O₄(s), the solubility in pure water is 1.7 x 10⁻⁴ M.

<h3>What is the solubility of Copper (II) Oxalate in pure water?</h3>

The solubility equilibrium (Ksp) is 2.9 x 10⁻⁸ so the solubility can be found as:

Ksp = [Cu²⁺] [C₂O₄²⁻]

Solving gives:

2.9 x 10⁻⁸ = S x S

S² = 2.9 x 10⁻⁸

S = 1.7 x 10⁻⁴ M

Find out more on solubility at brainly.com/question/23659342.

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3 0
3 years ago
A test consists of 10 multiple choice questions, each with five possible answers, one of which is correct. To pass the test a st
Softa [21]

Answer:

0.006369

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that a test consists of 10 multiple choice questions, each with five possible answers, one of which is correct.

By mere guessing p = probability for a right answer = 1/5 =0.20

There are two outcomes and each question is independent of the other.

X no of questions right is Bin (10,0.20)

the probability that the student will pass the test

= prob of getting more than 60%

=P(X\geq 6)

=0.006369

8 0
4 years ago
Let X1 and X2 be two random variables following Binomial distribution Bin(n1,p) and Bin(n2,p), respectively. Assume that X1 and
ryzh [129]

Answer:

a) X1+X2 have distribution Bi(n1+n2, p)

b)

P(X1+X2 = 1 | X2 = 0) =  np(1-p)ⁿ¹⁻¹

P(X1+X2 = 1| X2 = 1) = (1-p)ⁿ¹

P(X1 + X2 = 1) = (1-p)ⁿ¹ * np(1-p)ⁿ²⁻¹+ (1-p)ⁿ²*np(1-p)ⁿ¹-¹

Step-by-step explanation:

Since both variables are independent but they have the same probability parameter, you can interpret that like if the experiment that models each try in both variables is the same. When you sum both random variables toguether, what you obtain as a result is the total amount of success in n1+n2 tries of the same experiment, thus X1+X2 have distribution Bi(n1+n2, p).

b)

Note that, if X2 = k, then X1+X2 = 1 is equivalent to X1 = 1-k. Since X1 and X2 are independent, then P(X1+X2 = 1| X2 = K) = P(X1=1-k|X2=k) = P(X1 = 1-k).

If k = 0, then this probability is equal to P(X1 = 1) = np(1-p)ⁿ¹⁻¹

If k = 1, then it is equal to P(X1 = 0) = (1-p)ⁿ¹

Thus,

P(X1+X2 = 1) = P(X1+X2 = 1| X2 = 1) * P(X2=1) + P(X1+X2 = 1| X2 = 0) * P(X2 = 0) = (1-p)ⁿ¹ * np(1-p)ⁿ²⁻¹+ (1-p)ⁿ²*np(1-p)ⁿ¹-¹

4 0
4 years ago
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