Answer:
c. modified internal rate of return
Explanation:
Modified internal rate of return ( MIRR ) -
The modified internal rate of return is used in order to rank the projects or the investment that are of unequal size.
The assumption involved is that the positive flow of cash are again invested to the firm and the initial outlays are financed during the firm's financing cost , is referred to as the MIRR.
MIRR is very accurate in comparison to the traditional internal rate of return (IRR) and gives the profit and cost of the project with more accuracy.
Hence , from the given information of the question,
The correct option is c. modified internal rate of return .
Answer:
<em>Face validity</em>
Explanation:
Face validity applies to the great extent in which an evaluation or measure tends to subjectively assess the component or construct to be measured.
In certain utterances, face validity is when an evaluation or test happens to be doing what it claims to be doing.
Answer:
C) $80,000
Explanation:
Since Rose uses the LIFO method for determining COGS, the 10,000 units sold should be recorded at $7.90 (purchase price 1/5).
10,000 units still remain in inventory (8,000 beginning + 2,000 last purchase). Using the LIFO costing method the inventory unit cost should be [(8,000 x $8.20) + (2,000 x $7.90)] / 10,000 = $8.14 per unit
If the replacement cost is $8 per unit, and Rose decides to use lower-of-cost-or-market rule, then she should use the lowest cost which is the replacement cost ($8 < $8.14).
So the ending inventory's total cost is $8 per unit x 10,000 units = $80,000
Answer:
Final balance = $ 14,272.93
Explanation:
Annual Deposits(PMT) = $1,000
Number of years(N) = 12
Rate of interest (r) = 3.1% = 0.031
Future Value = ?
Computation:
![Future\ Value = PMT[\frac{(1+i)^n-1}{i} ] \\Future\ Value = 1,000[\frac{(1+0.031)^{12}-1}{0.031} ] \\Future\ Value = 1,000[\frac{(1.031)^{12}-1}{0.031} ] \\Future\ Value = 1,000[\frac{1.44246-1}{0.031} ] \\Future\ Value = 1,000[\frac{0.44246}{0.031} ] \\Future\ Value = 1,000[14.2729] \\Future\ Value = 14,272.9252](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=Future%5C%20Value%20%3D%20PMT%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281%2Bi%29%5En-1%7D%7Bi%7D%20%5D%20%5C%5CFuture%5C%20Value%20%3D%201%2C000%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281%2B0.031%29%5E%7B12%7D-1%7D%7B0.031%7D%20%5D%20%5C%5CFuture%5C%20Value%20%3D%201%2C000%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281.031%29%5E%7B12%7D-1%7D%7B0.031%7D%20%5D%20%5C%5CFuture%5C%20Value%20%3D%201%2C000%5B%5Cfrac%7B1.44246-1%7D%7B0.031%7D%20%5D%20%5C%5CFuture%5C%20Value%20%3D%201%2C000%5B%5Cfrac%7B0.44246%7D%7B0.031%7D%20%5D%20%5C%5CFuture%5C%20Value%20%3D%201%2C000%5B14.2729%5D%20%5C%5CFuture%5C%20Value%20%3D%2014%2C272.9252)
Final balance = $ 14,272.93
Answer:
Explanation:
a)We find the portfolio weights first. For a two security portfolio
x2 = 0.625 and x1 = 0.375
Then
rp = x1r1 + x2r2
rp = (0.375 ´ 0.06) + (0.625 ´ 0.14)
= 0.11
= 11.0%
Hence, he can improve the expected rate of return without any change in the risk of the portfolio.
b)
The expected return is:
rp = x1r1 + x2r2
rp = (0.5 *´ 0.09) + (0.5 ´* 0.14)
= 0.115 = 11.5%
sP2 = (0.5)^2(0.10)^2 + 2*(0.5)(0.5)(0.10)(0.16)(0.10) + (0.5)^2(0.16)^2
sP2 = 0.0097
sP = 0.985 = 9.85%
Hence, he can never perform better by investing equal amount in bond portfolio and index fund. The expected return increases to 11.5% and standard deviation decreases to 9.85%.
