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kotegsom [21]
3 years ago
14

Multiplying fraction 5 5/9×2 16/25

Mathematics
2 answers:
dalvyx [7]3 years ago
6 0
Exact form:44/3
Decimal form:14.6666666...
Mixed form:14 2/3
Angelina_Jolie [31]3 years ago
3 0
You can convert them to decimals and multiply. Remember when using decimals, it is over 10 or 100 <span />
You might be interested in
The graph of f(x) is shown below, if f(x) and its inverse function,
Yuki888 [10]

Before defining the inverse of a function we need to have the right mental image of function.

Consider the function f(x) = 2x + 1. We know how to evaluate f at 3, f(3) = 2*3 + 1 = 7. In this section it helps to think of f as transforming a 3 into a 7, and f transforms a 5 into an 11, etc.

Now that we think of f as "acting on" numbers and transforming them, we can define the inverse of f as the function that "undoes" what f did. In other words, the inverse of f needs to take 7 back to 3, and take -3 back to -2, etc.

Let g(x) = (x - 1)/2. Then g(7) = 3, g(-3) = -2, and g(11) = 5, so g seems to be undoing what f did, at least for these three values. To prove that g is the inverse of f we must show that this is true for any value of x in the domain of f. In other words, g must take f(x) back to x for all values of x in the domain of f. So, g(f(x)) = x must hold for all x in the domain of f. The way to check this condition is to see that the formula for g(f(x)) simplifies to x.

g(f(x)) = g(2x + 1) = (2x + 1 -1)/2 = 2x/2 = x.

This simplification shows that if we choose any number and let f act it, then applying g to the result recovers our original number. We also need to see that this process works in reverse, or that f also undoes what g does.

f(g(x)) = f((x - 1)/2) = 2(x - 1)/2 + 1 = x - 1 + 1 = x.

Letting f-1 denote the inverse of f, we have just shown that g = f-1.      http://dl.uncw.edu/digilib/mathematics/algebra/mat111hb/functions/inverse/inverse.html

5 0
4 years ago
There are 4 oranges, 7 bananas, and 5 apples in a fruit basket.
frosja888 [35]
Pretty low, it’s exactly 0.175
8 0
3 years ago
I need Urgent help on this please !!
Feliz [49]

Answer:

6 2 6 2 6 6 1

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Please help. i’ve been struggling with proofs and no ones been able to help me
melamori03 [73]

Answer:

See explanation.

Step-by-step explanation:

Statement                                                           Reasons

1) \overline{DC} \cong \overline{BC}1)Given

2) \angle CED \cong \angleD          2)Given

3) \overline{CE} \cong \overline{CD}

and \triangle CED is isosceles      3)Converse of the Base Angle Thm.                      

4) \overline{CE} \cong \overline{CE}4) Reflexive Property

5) \overline{CE} \cong \overline{BC} 5) Transitive Property

6) \angle CBE \cong \angle CEB    

and \triangle CBE is isosceles        6) Base Angle Theorem

I'm going to write my statements and reasons in order below just in case it isn't readable on your computer from above.

Statements:

1) \overline{DC} \cong \overline{BC}

2)  \angle CED \cong \angleD  

3)  \overline{CE} \cong \overline{CD}

and \triangle CED is isosceles  

4) \overline{CE} \cong \overline{CE}

5) \overline{CE} \cong \overline{BC}

6)  \angle CBE \cong \angle CEB    

and \triangle CBE is isosceles

Reasons:

1) Given

2) Given

3) Converse of the Base Angle Theorem

4) Reflexive property

5) Transitive property

6) Base Angle Theorem

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Whenever I start a two-column proof, I state me givens.

I applied the converse of the base angle theorem because we were given two angles in the triangle CED that were congruent. By this theorem, if two angles are congruent, then their opposite legs are congruent. So also by this theorem; if you can apply it, then you have an isosceles triangle.

Both triangles shared the side CE is why I used the reflexive property.

I knew CE and CD were congruent by the theorem I stated in reasons: 3 (converse of the base angle theorem).

I also had that in my given that DC=BC. So by transitive property, I could conclude that CE=BC.  

This is when I finally used the base angle theorem to conclude that the opposite angles of those congruent legs in triangle CBE were congruent.

The base angle theorem says if two legs in a triangle are congruent, then the opposite angles of those legs are congruent.  So you can conclude from this theorem; if is applicable which it was here, that the triangle is an isosceles.

6 0
3 years ago
Is 36 feet equal greater or less than 12 yards
Maru [420]
Equal to because 12 yards equals 36 feet
6 0
3 years ago
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