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Ket [755]
3 years ago
15

Richard is planning a trip to Italy. He Thinks he will need $2,750 for the trip. If the trip is 40 weeks away, which is the best

estimate of how much money Richard needs to save each week?
Mathematics
2 answers:
Leto [7]3 years ago
7 0
Hey there
That's easy
Divide 2750 by 40 and a good estimate would be 68 dollars
Hope this helps
ki77a [65]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:$70


Step-by-step explanation:$2750÷40=68 the estimate of 68 is $70


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7.66666666667

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SpyIntel [72]

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Step-by-step explanation:

5²+3²

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Given triangle GHJ, the measure of angle G equals 110°, the measure of angle J equals 40°, and the measure of angle H equals 30°
stiv31 [10]

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Since angle G is the largest angle, the opposite side, JH, is the longest. The order of the side lengths from longest to shortest is JH, HG, GJ

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The biology faculty at a college consists of 8 professors, 11 asscociate professors , 12 assistant professors and 4 instructors.
vodka [1.7K]

Answer:

0.343

Step-by-step explanation:

First, find the different ways one can chose a professor or instructor. In this case, there are 8 professors and 4 instructors. So there are a total of 12 ways you can choose a professor or instructor.

Second, you want to find the different ways you can choose any member of the faculty. In this example, since you are only choosing one person, then you just find the total number of people in the faculty, which is 8 + 11 + 12 + 4 = 35.

Third, all you do is divide the different ways you can get a professor or instructor by the total different ways you can choose. So it's 12/35, or 0.343.

7 0
3 years ago
Find the expansion of tan x about the point X = 0.
yan [13]

Answer:

f(x) = x +\frac{1}{3}x^{3}+....

Step-by-step explanation:

As per the question,

let us consider f(x) = tan(x).

We know that <u>The Maclaurin series is given by:</u>

f(x) = f(0) + \frac{f^{'}(0)}{1!}\cdot x+ \frac{f^{''}(0)}{2!}\cdot x^{2}+\frac{f^{'''}(0)}{3!}\cdot x^{3}+......

So, differentiate the given function 3 times in order to find f'(x), f''(x) and f'''(x).

Therefore,

f'(x) = sec²x

f''(x) = 2 × sec(x) × sec(x)tan(x)

      = 2 × sec²(x) × tan(x)

f'''(x) = 2 × 2 sec²(x) tan(x) tan(x) + 2 sec²(x) × sec²(x)

       = 4sec²(x) tan²(x) + 2sec⁴(x)

       = 6 sec⁴x - 4 sec² x

We then substitute x with 0, and find the values

f(0) = tan 0 = 0

f'(0) =  sec²0 = 1

f''(0) = 2 × sec²(0) × tan(0) = 0

f'''(0) = 6 sec⁴0- 4 sec² 0 = 2

By putting all the values in the Maclaurin series, we get

f(x) = f(0) + \frac{f^{'}(0)}{1!}\cdot x+ \frac{f^{''}(0)}{2!}\cdot x^{2}+\frac{f^{'''}(0)}{3!}\cdot x^{3}+......

f(x) = 0 + \frac{1}{1}\cdot x+ \frac{0}{2}\cdot x^{2}+\frac{2}{6}\cdot x^{3}+......

f(x) = x +\frac{1}{3}x^{3}+....

Therefore, the expansion of tan x at x = 0 is

f(x) = x +\frac{1}{3}x^{3}+.....

8 0
3 years ago
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