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allochka39001 [22]
3 years ago
11

Using the lengths​ (in.), chest sizes​ (in.), and weights​ (lb) of bears from a data​ set, the resulting regression equation is

Weight= - 274+0.426 Length +12.1 Chest Size. The​ P-value is 0.000 and the adjusted R^2 value is 0.925. If an additional predictor variable of neck size​ (in.) is​ included, the​ P-value becomes 0.000 and the adjusted R^2 becomes 0.933. Why is it better to use values of adjusted Rsquared instead of simply using values of R^2?
a. The unadjusted R^2 decreases or remains the same as more variables are included, but the adjusted R2 is adjusted for the number of variables and sample size.
b. The unadjusted R^2 can only be calculated for regression equations with two or fewer predictor variables, while the adjusted R2 can be calculated for regression equations with any number of predictor variables.
c. The unadjusted R^2 increases or remains the same as more variables are included, but the adjusted R2 is adjusted for the number of variables and sample size.
d. The unadjusted R^2 can only be calculated for regression equations with P-values greater than 0, while the adjusted R2 can be calculated for regression equations with any manner of P-value.
Business
1 answer:
gladu [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

C

Explanation:

Adjusted R^2 is calculated for multiple explanatory variables and R^2 value is calculated for only one explanatory variable.

Adjusted R^2 is always greater than R^2. As the sample size is increased or more variables are included, R^2 value increases and becomes closer to adjusted R^2 value. Adjusted R^2 value accounts for the number of variables and sample size

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guapka [62]

Answer:

Explanation:

Using future annuity formula

Fv = Pmt ( (1+r)ⁿ -1 )/ r

\frac{FVr}{Pmt}  + 1 = (1+r)ⁿ

In ( \frac{FVr}{Pmt} + 1) = n In ( 1+r)

n =  In ( \frac{FVr}{Pmt} + 1)  / In ( 1 + r)

FV, future value = $10,000, Pmt, periodic payment per year = $1,100, r rate = 11.82% = 0.1182 and n =  number of years

n = 0.7297 / 0.11172 = 6.53 years approx 7 years

the last year payment will actually be less than $1,100

6 0
4 years ago
As the Chief Financial Officer for a metal refinery, Kaylee disagrees with using a turnkey strategy to enter into the Asian mark
denpristay [2]

Answer:

Take a minority equity interest in the operation.

Explanation:

Multiple Choice

a) Sell competitive advantage to competitors.

b) Agree to import another product from the Asian market.

c) Take a minority equity interest in the operation.

d) Withhold vital process technology from the local firm.

e) Establish a franchise operation.

A turnkey strategy is a market entry position where the project is built from the ground up and turned over to the client ready to go – turn the key and the plant is operational. This is a very good way to enter foreign markets as the client is normally a government. While when one takes a minority equity interest they do not have the votes to control the operations and finances of the the company’s business.

Kaylee, the Chief Financial Officer for a metal refinery, Kaylee reasons that the company doesn't have longterm interest in the Asian market advises to take a minority equity interest in the operation in order not to lose financially.

4 0
3 years ago
What are various options to regulate monopolies in the United States? <br><br> I’ll give brainliest
Darya [45]

Answer:

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3 0
3 years ago
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Effectus [21]

Answer:

maximum interest rate = 3%

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Explanation:

given data

investment = $6000

receive = $6180

borrow = $6000

to find out

maximum interest rate bank needs to offer on the loan

solution

we consider here maximum interest rate bank needs to offer is = r

so value of investment will be express here as

value of investment = amount to be borrowed × ( 1 + r )    ................1

put here value we get rate r

6180 = 6000 × ( 1 + r )

solve it we get

rate = 0.03

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Nataly_w [17]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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