3 years ago

HELP ASAPPPP Once a linear inequality is graphed, what does the shading portion mean?

1 answer:

3 0

Answer:

Shading of the graph of the inequality is based on whether when 0 is implemented into y and x that the inequality makes sense.

Explanation:

If 0 fits into the inequality, shade the part of the graph that includes (0,0). If 0 does not fit into the inequality, shade the part of the graph that does not include (0,0).

You might be interested in

84. Why did the Kingdom of Axum become so successful?

Inga [223]

The kingdom of axum was successful because people from different land went to settle there.Islam and Christianity existed peacefully together

8 0

3 years ago

The Assyrian Empire was able to rule through its use of a

Ludmilka [50]

Answer:

Of A what ? need more information

Explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the sinking of the Lusitania?

anygoal [31]

C is false it was not a british ocean liner

8 0

3 years ago

Match these terms with their region: covenant community-tolerant society-commercial centers- plantation economy- royalists (cava

irga5000 [103]

Before Gettysburg, most major Civil War battles in the East
were won by the Union military.involved General Robert E. Lee.were fought on Confederate soil.<span>involved General Ulysses S. Grant.</span>

4 0

3 years ago

Alexander Hamilton believed what type of economy, powerful in the North, would be most beneficial to the US?

Goryan [66]

Answer:

Alexander Hamilton believed in industry

8 0

3 years ago