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olga2289 [7]
3 years ago
8

HELP ASAPPPP Once a linear inequality is graphed, what does the shading portion mean?

History
1 answer:
solniwko [45]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Shading of the graph of the inequality is based on whether when 0 is implemented into y and x that the inequality makes sense.

Explanation:

If 0 fits into the inequality, shade the part of the graph that includes (0,0). If 0 does not fit into the inequality, shade the part of the graph that does not include (0,0).

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Hey! I'd be glad to help! But just a quick question..

Explanation:

What kind of imperialism are we talking about here? Religious, colony, protectorate, or economic imperialism?

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iris [78.8K]

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1. Compare and contrast Spanish, French, Dutch, and British methods of colonization. How were they alike, and how were they diff
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Answer:

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Explanation:

This isn't an explanation but i am not too confident with this answer, this is my first AP class and i am still learning, i hope this helps someone, thank you:)

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