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a_sh-v [17]
3 years ago
5

The long-run aggregate supply curve a. is vertical. b. is a graphical representation of the classical dichotomy. c. indicates mo

netary neutrality in the long run. d. All of the above are correct.
Business
1 answer:
Gennadij [26K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct answer is option d.

Explanation:

The long-run aggregate supply curve is a vertical straight line. This is because, in the long run, the output level is not affected by price changes. Instead, output level changes with the changes in the state of technology and level of inputs. In the long run, when price level increase, the factor prices or price of inputs will increase as well. So there will be no change in output due to the change in the price level.  

The vertical long-run aggregate supply curve also reflects classical dichotomy that in the long run, when all the resources will be fully employed, an increase in the aggregate demand cause the price level to rise while supply remains constant.

It also indicates that monetary policy only affect the price level, the economic output remains constant.

You might be interested in
What two requirements of supply must someone meet to be considered a producer?
netineya [11]
The two requirements of supply that someone must meet in order to be considered a producer are the following:
1. the willingness to supply a product or service
2. the ability to supply a product or service

Without these two, you don't have what it takes to become a producer. But if you have the means to support your company, and the wish to do so, there's nothing stopping you. 
8 0
2 years ago
In 2000 Jenson Inc. issued bonds with an 8 percent coupon rate and a $1,000 face value. The bonds mature on March 1, 2025. If an
Vanyuwa [196]

Answer:

Yield to maturity is 6.6%

Explanation:

Yield to maturity is the annual rate of return that an investor receives if a bond bond is held until the maturity.

Face value = F = $1,000

Assuming Coupon payments are made annually

Coupon payment = $1,000 x 8% = $80

Selling price = P = $1,100

Number of payment = n = 13 years

Yield to maturity = [ C + ( F - P ) / n ] / [ (F + P ) / 2 ]

Yield to maturity = [ $80 + ( 1000 - 1100 ) / 13 ] / [ (1,000 + 1100 ) / 2 ]

Yield to maturity = [ $80 - 7.7 ] / 1100 = $72.3 /1100 = 0.066 = 6.6%

5 0
3 years ago
Buying office space is ______________ in the long run-in comparison to leasing. Which is the correct answer?
Vedmedyk [2.9K]

Answer:

less expansive

Explanation:

i took the test. i got it right

5 0
2 years ago
Procter & Gamble’s June 30, 2016, financial statements reported the following (in millions): Cash, beginning of year $ 6,836
lina2011 [118]

Answer:

(9,594)

Explanation:

The net cash movement during a period the sum of cashflow from operations (CFO), cashflow from investing activities (CFI) and cashflow from financing (CFF) activities. On the other hand, that net cash movement is also calculated as the difference between end of year cash position and start of year cash position. Given that, we have the equation as below:

End of year cash position - Start of year cash position = CFO + CFI + CFF

Putting all the number together, we have:

7,102 - 6,836 = 15,435 - 5,575 + CFF

Solve the equation, we have CFF = (9,594)

5 0
3 years ago
If the seller has reason to believe that nonconforming goods will be acceptable to the buyer, this could constitute as an except
Blababa [14]

Answer:

Perfect Tender Rule

A. True

Explanation:

The Uniform Commercial Code's Article 2 recognizes the legal right of a buyer of goods to demand precise conformity of the goods to the product description in quality, quantity, and delivery manner.  Therefore, the buyer may reject goods offered by the seller which do not conform to the earlier product descriptions.  This rule is called the Perfect Tender Rule.  An exception to this rule will be if the seller has a reason to believe that non-conforming goods will be acceptable to the buyer.

4 0
3 years ago
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