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gogolik [260]
3 years ago
11

A bond with a $1,000 par value sells for $895. The coupon rate is 7%, the bonds mature in 20 years, and coupon interest is paid

semi-annually. The tax rate is 35%. What is the aftertax cost of this debt?
Business
1 answer:
LuckyWell [14K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

After tax cost of debt is 5.239%

Explanation:

Given:

Face value = $1,000

Bond price = $895

Coupon payments = 0.035×1,000 = $35 (coupon payment is paid semi-annually so 7% is divided by 2)

Maturity = 20×2 = 40 periods

Using bond price formula:

Bond price = Present value of face value + present value of coupon payments

Use excel function =RATE(nper,pmt,PV,FV) to calculate cost of debt.

substituting the values:

=RATE(40,35,-895,1000)

we get Pre-Tax cost of debt = 4.03% semi- annual

Annual rate is 4.03%×2 = 8.06%

Note: PV is negative as bond price is cash outflow.

After tax cost of debt = 8.06(1 - 0.35)

                                     = 5.239%

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Global Blenders sells goods and services that other companies offer but does not provide any organization with the input resources needed to produce goods and services. Based on this information, we can thus say that Global Blenders is a Distributor not a supplier.

<h3><u>Explanation:</u></h3>

There are three important terms associated with the supply chain management. They are distributors, suppliers and wholesalers. Distributors are those who are directly related with the manufacturers and they represent the manufacturers in some way. Distributors have buying agreements that includes only certain number of members and also they usually cover certain specific areas.

Suppliers are those who provide goods and services to the wholesalers, retailers and also to the distributors. They usually have a very close relation with the distributors and provide them the goods and services they need.Global Blenders sells goods and services but they are not responsible for providing resources for the purpose of producing goods and services. Thus, Global Blenders is a Distributor not a supplier.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose we are looking at a cash flow statement constructed using the INDIRECT method. We see a NEGATIVE adjustment of $5000 rel
ozzi

Answer:

It implies that the firm paid $5,000 to its supplier this accounting period (e.g. year) out of the amount the firm is owing the supplier.

Note: The correct answer is as stated above it is not included in the option. Kindly confirm the options again from your teacher.

Explanation:

Accounts payable refers to the amount of money a firm is owing its suppliers.

Account payable is one of the component of the current liabilities in the balance sheet, and non-cash current liability item that is adjusted for in the cash flow statement to arrive at net cash from operating activities when an indirect method is being used.

Since accounts payable is the amount of money a firm is owing its suppliers, a negative  a NEGATIVE adjustment to its implies that company has paid its supplier the negative amount in the accounting period.

Therefore, a NEGATIVE adjustment of $5000 related to Accounts Payable implies that the firm paid $5,000 to its supplier this accounting period (e.g. year) out of the amount the firm is owing the supplier.

7 0
3 years ago
An opportunity has the following four essential qualities: ________.
kaheart [24]

Answer:

A) attractive; timely; durable; and anchored in a product, service, or business that creates or adds value for its buyer or end user

Explanation:

A true business opportunity;

  1. is attractive, must have high profit expectations.
  2. must be durable, should last at least a few years, not only a one time event.
  3. must present itself at the right moment and time. Sometimes great ideas are left behind because they are too disruptive, e.g. the Nash Rambler built in 1950 was the first compact car but wasn't very successful. Japanese compact cars became successful in the 1970s.
  4. must be anchored in a product or service that your company can provide that satisfies consumers' needs.

7 0
3 years ago
In the 1950s, imports and exports of goods and services constituted roughly 4% to 5% of U.S. GDP. In recent years, exports have
barxatty [35]

Answer:

a) An increasing number of import quotas

b) Better high-speed rail lines

c) Improvements in telecommunications

d) International trade agreements such as the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)

Explanation:

All of the above applies as in order to increase the international trade.

As with the increase in quotas there is a pressure to increase the imports. Further when there is easy chain of supply even in the international market that is railway facility is smooth and that the telecommunications is also easy.

Further, with increased trade agreements there is provision of reduced tariffs and taxes and accordingly the international exchange is not complicated and is rather smooth.

5 0
3 years ago
John works part-time for a moving company and earns a total of $116 each weekend. A friend invites him to go on a cruise next we
adell [148]

Answer: $116

Explanation: Opportunity cost refers to the loss of profit by an individual or a firm when one chooses to go for best alternative instead of the second best alternative.

In the given case, John has two alternatives and if he chooses to go on the trip it would cost him the loss of $116 salary that he receives.

Thus the opportunity cost of going on the trip would be $116.

5 0
3 years ago
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