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rodikova [14]
3 years ago
10

If F(x) = f(x)g(x), where f and g have derivatives of all orders

Mathematics
1 answer:
user100 [1]3 years ago
6 0

a. By the product rule,

F=fg\implies F'=f'g+fg'

\implies F''=(f''g+f'g')+(f'g'+fg'')=f''g+2f'g'+fg''

b. By the same rule,

F'''=(f'''g+f''g')+2(f''g'+f'g'')+(f'g''+fg''')

F'''=f'''g+3f''g'+3f'g''+fg'''

and

F^{(4)}=(f^{(4)}g+f'''g')+3(f'''g'+f''g'')+3(f''g''+f'g''')+(f'g'''+fg^{(4)})

F^{(4)}=f^{(4)}g+4f'''g'+6f''g''+4f'g'''+fg^{(4)}

c. You might recognize the coefficients as those that appear in the expansion of (a+b)^n:

1, 1

1, 2, 1

1, 3, 3, 1

1, 4, 6, 4, 1

and so on; the general pattern (known as the general Leibniz rule) is

F^{(n)}=\displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^n\binom nkf^{(n-k)}g^{(k)}

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