Answer:
e) Nan will have more money than Neal at any age.
Explanation:
In compound interest, the interest earned in the year is added to the principal amount at the beginning of the next year. Earned interest becomes part of the principal which makes it earn interest. Adding interest to the principal to earn more interest is known as compounding.
The longer the investment period is, the more time interest will be compounded, and the more the investment will grow. Nan made her investment at age 25. By the time she retires, her investment period will be 35 years. Neil started her investment at age 30. At any given time after they are both age 30, Nan's investment will have earned compounded interest five more times than Neil. Therefore, Nan will have more money at any given time.
Answer:
b.$5,912.50
Explanation:
The computation of the operating income is shown below:
= Sales - Direct materials cost - Direct labor cost - Manufacturing overhead cost - Total selling and administrative expense
where,
Sales = Number of units × selling price per unit
= 825 units × $74.80
= $61,710
Direct materials cost = Number of units × Direct materials per unit
= 825 units × $13
= $10,725
Direct labor cost = Number of units × Direct labor per unit
= 825 units × $13
= $7,260
Manufacturing overhead cost = Number of units × Manufacturing overhead per unit
= 825 units × $16.50
= $13,612.50
And, the Total selling and administrative expense is $24,200
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= $61,710 - $10,725 - $7,260 - $13,612.50 - $24,200
= $5,912.50
Answer:
James will lose money, since his earnings will be lower than the interest that he must pay.
Explanation:
The capitalization (cap) rate is a ratio calculated by dividing the net operating income over the property asset value.
For example, if James is purchasing the property at $100,000, his net earning will be $7,500 per year (cap rate of 7.5%), but he will have to $8,000 in interests for the property. The interests are higher than the earnings, therefore the leverage is negative.
Answer:
$50,000
Explanation:
Note: There is an assumption that the payment is yearly payment & is received at the end of every year
Present Value of Perpetuity = Payment Receivable in 1st year/ (Discount rate - Growth rate)
Present Value of Perpetuity = 500/(2%-1%)
Present Value of Perpetuity = 500/0.01
Present Value of Perpetuity = $50,000
So, the present value of all the future trust payments is closest to $50,000
Answer:
The stock A is most valuable as the fair value of Stock A is $100 which is more than the fair value of Stock B ( $83.33) and Stock C ($34.28).
Explanation:
to calculate the fair price of the stocks, we will use the DDM or dividend discount model. The DDM bases the value of a stock on the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock.
Let r be the discount rate which is 10%.
a.
The stock is like a perpetuity as it pays a constant dividend after equal intervals of time and for an indefinite period.
The price of this stock can be calculated as,
Price or P0 = Dividend / r
P0 = 10 / 0.1 = $100
b.
The constant growth model of DDM can be used to calculate the price of this stock as its dividends are growing at a constant rate forever.
P0 = D1 / r - g
Where,
- D1 is the dividend for the next period
- r is the cost of equity or discount rate
- g is the growth rate in dividends
P0 = 5 / (0.1 - 0.04)
P0 = $83.33
c.
The price of this stock can be calculated using the present of dividends.
P0 = 5 / (1+0.1) + 5 * (1+0.2) / (1+0.1)^2 + 5 * (1+0.2)^2 / (1+0.1)^3 +
5 * (1+0.2)^3 / (1+0.1)^4 + 5 * (1+0.2)^4 / (1+0.1)^5 + 5 * (1+0.2)^5 / (1+0.1)^6
P0 = $34.28