Answer:
is producing at a point where output is less than potential GDP.
Explanation:
When the unemployment is high it is obvious that the economy is under its potential level but there is inflation case so we need to know the meaning of Philips Curve. The aggregate demand and aggregate supply model provides a simple summary of the possible outcomes proposed by the Phillips curve. The Phillips curve shows the combination of inflation and unemployment arising when the economy of the aggregate demand curve in the short run shifts along the short-term aggregate supply curve. Increased demand for goods and services will lead to higher prices in the short term and increased output of goods and services. Increasing output means increasing employment and lowering unemployment. In addition, the higher the rate this year, the higher the rate of inflation, no matter what the price level is in the past. Thus, the change in aggregate demand leads to short-term changes in inflation and unemployment rates, which is consistent with the dependence described in the Phillips curve. Monetary and fiscal policy tools are used to influence the aggregate demand curve, that is, to move the economy along the Phillips curve. Increasing money supply, government spending, or tax cuts move the aggregate demand curve to the right and drives the economy to a point where the Phillips curve corresponds to lower unemployment and higher inflation. Reducing money supply, government spending, or raising taxes will push the aggregate demand curve to the left, while the economy shifts to the point where Phillips curves with lower inflation and higher unemployment. In this sense, the Phillips curve offers policymakers a set of combinations of inflation and unemployment.
Answer:
It will take 1 year and 307 days to cover the initial investment.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Initial investment= $6,900
Cash flows:
Cf1= $4,200
Cf2= $5,100
Cf3= $6,300
Cf4= $5,500
Discount rate= 15%
<u>The payback period is the time required to cover the initial investment. We need to discount each cash flow.</u>
<u></u>
Year 1= 4,200/1.15 - 6,900= -3,247.83
Year 2= 5,100/1.15^2 - 3,247.83= 608.50
<u>To be more accurate:</u>
(3,247.83 / 3,856.33)*365= 307 days
It will take 1 year and 307 days to cover the initial investment.
Answer:
3. cannibalization
Explanation:
This term refers to the situation were sales or the market share of a product are reduced because another product is introduced by the same company.
Answer:
competing
Explanation:
because his cooperativeness is low and his assertiveness is high.
Answer:
No
Explanation:
Suzie's situation isn't workable because she is meant to be under the direct supervision of her broker no matter what her personal preference for independence.
This is because should anything go wrong in any of her dealings, the brokers's license will be revoked. This means that the broker is directly responsible and accountable for her actions and as such must ensure that she is present at the office at all times.
Cheers.
