ob topics typically relate to the individual, team and organizational levels of analysis.
<span>A benefit that is sought by an interest group and that once achieved cannot be denied to nonmembers is called a free rider. The free rider problem is created from market failure because people take advantage of being able to use common resources or collective goods without being able to pay for </span>them.
Answer:
$876,205.93
Explanation:
Calculation for the value of the Treasury note
FV= 1,000,000
N=3*2
N=6
PMT=3%*1,000,000/2
PMT=30,000/2
PMT= 15,000
I/Y=7.7/2
I/Y= 3.85
Using financial calculator to find the present value of the treasury note
Present Value = $876,205.93
Therefore the present value of the treasury note will be $876,205.93
Answer: Machine B because it has the lower Present Value
Explanation:
<h2>
Machine A</h2>
= Present Value of income - Present Value of Costs
Present value of Income;
Sold for $5,000 after 10 years.
= 5,000/ (1 + 8%)^10
= $2,315.97
Present Value of Costs;
Purchased for $48,000.
Maintenance of $1,000 per year for years.
Present value of maintenance= 1,000 * Present value factor of annuity, 10 years, 8%
= 1,000 * 6.7101
= $6,710.10
Machine A Present Value
= 2,315.97 - 6,710.10 - 48,000
= -$52,394
<h2>
Machine B</h2>
No salvage value.
Present Value of costs
Purchased for $40,000.
Present value of maintenance = (4,000 / (1 + 8%)^3) + (5,000 / ( 1 + 8)^6) + (6,000 / ( 1 + 8%)^8)
= -$9,567.79
Present Value = -40,000 - 9,567.79
= -$49,568
Answer:
$16400
$8200
Explanation:
Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset
Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life)
Depreciation factor = 2/4 = 0.5
Depreciation expense in year 1 = 0.5 x $32,800 = $16,400
Book value at the beginning of year 2 = $32,800 - $16,400 = $16400
Depreciation expense in year 2 = 0.5 x $16,400= $8200
