Answto be honest I really don’t know er:
Explanation:
Answer:
The final value of the investment after 3 years is $7,146.10
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Investment= $6,000
Interest rate= 6% compounded annually
The number of years= 3 years.
To calculate the final value, we need to use the following formula:
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
FV= 6,000*(1.06^3)
FV= $7,146.10
The final value of the investment after 3 years is $7,146.10
<span>Taurus's employer must record $60.76 for unemployment compensation because his yearly pay has not yet exceeded the $7,000 cap. Taurus's oasdi tax would be $60.76 and the medicare tax total is $14.21. The total payroll tax expenses for Taurus's employer to pay is $135.73.</span>
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation:
Under this case the write off will be as follow:
Debit Credit
Allowance for doubtful accounts 25,200
Accounts receivables 25,200
Here, in this case the Allowance for the doubtful accounts and Accounts receivables are further decreased as the outcome of the transaction made. Thus, there will be no further effect on working capital. Therefore the $30,000 that is bad debt would then be stated as the credit to allowance account. This will then decrease the working capital by $30,000.
Answer:
Yield to maturity is 7.93%
Yield to call is 7.83%
Explanation:
I calculated both the yield to maturity and yield to call using the rate formula in excel which is =rate(nper,pmt,pv,-fv)
nper is the year to maturity and year to call of 18 years and 8 years respectively.
pmt is the periodic coupon payment is 9%*1000=$90 in each case.
pv is the present value in each case of $1100.35
The future value which is the redemption value is $1000 for yield to maturity and $1060 for yield to call
Find attached detailed calculation
