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AleksAgata [21]
3 years ago
9

PLEASE HELP QUICK!!!!!

Business
2 answers:
MA_775_DIABLO [31]3 years ago
8 0

C. education/health and human services

gizmo_the_mogwai [7]3 years ago
3 0

We need to see the chart.

But look at the chart and see which of these has the largest "piece" of the pie.

You might be interested in
"A company offers ID theft protection using leads obtained from client banks. Four employees work 40 hour a week on the lead, at
chubhunter [2.5K]

Answer:

1.67

Explanation:

The computation of multi-factor productivity is shown below:-

Multi-factor productivity = Potential leads × Number of workers × Fee × Conversion percentage ÷ Labor cost + Material cost + Overhead cost

= 3,500 × 4 × $60 × 0.03 ÷ 4 × 40 × $35 + $1,500 + $8,000

= 25,200 ÷ 15,100

= 1.67

Therefore for computing the multi-factor productivity we simply applied the above formula.

7 0
3 years ago
For the following scenario, calculate the surplus and indicate if it is a producer surplus or a consumer surplus. Alice is willi
Sedaia [141]

Answer:

a) consumer

$5

Explanation:

Consumer surplus is the difference between the willingness to pay of a consumer and the price of the good.

Willingness to pay is the highest amount a consumer would be willing to pay for a product. The willingness to pay in this question is $30.

The price of the goods is $35 but Alice would pay ($35 - $10) = $25

The consumer surplus is $30 - $25 = $5

Producer surplus is the difference between the price of a product and the lowest price a supplier would be willing to sell his product.

I hope my answer helps you.

6 0
3 years ago
Included in Sage Company’s December 31, 2020, trial balance are the following accounts: Prepaid Rent $5,870, Debt Investments (t
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

Answer:

Step 1:

Start by setting it up with the divisor 20 on the left side and the dividend 16 on the right side like this:

           

 2 0 ⟌ 1 6  

Step 2:

The divisor (20) goes into the first digit of the dividend (1), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:

       0    

 2 0 ⟌ 1 6  

Step 3:

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (20 x 0 = 0) and write that answer below the dividend.

       0    

 2 0 ⟌ 1 6  

       0    

Step 4:

Subtract the result in the previous step from the first digit of the dividend (1 - 0 = 1) and write the answer below.

       0    

 2 0 ⟌ 1 6  

     - 0    

       1    

Step 5:

Move down the 2nd digit of the dividend (6) like this:

       0    

 2 0 ⟌ 1 6  

     - 0    

       1 6  

Step 6:

The divisor (20) goes into the bottom number (16), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:

       0 0  

 2 0 ⟌ 1 6  

     - 0    

       1 6  

Step 7:

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (20 x 0 = 0) and write that answer at the bottom:

       0 0  

 2 0 ⟌ 1 6  

     - 0    

       1 6  

        0  

Step 8:

Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (16 - 0 = 16) and write the answer at the bottom.

       0 0  

 2 0 ⟌ 1 6  

     - 0    

       1 6  

     -   0  

       1 6  

You are done, because there are no more digits to move down from the dividend.

The answer is the top number and the remainder is the bottom number.

Therefore, the answer to 16 divided by 20 calculated using Long Division is:

0

16 Remainder

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Mel is thinking of going on a cruise. Mel values a cruise in nice weather at $2,000 and values a cruise in bad weather at $50. T
Vinvika [58]

Answer:

Mel

If Mel is risk-neutral, then in the absence of trip insurance, the most she will be willing to pay for the cruise is _______.

c. $1,220

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Mel's value of a cruise in nice weather = $2,000

Mel's value of a cruise in bad weather = $50

Probability of nice weather = 60%

Probability of bad weather = 40%

Expected value:

Weather              Outcome Probability    Expected Value

Nice weather      $2,000          60%           $1,200

Bad weather            $50           40%               $20

Total expected value of a cruise               $1,220

6 0
3 years ago
The following refers to units processed by a breakfast cereal maker in August. Compute the total equivalent units of production
masya89 [10]

Answer:

Total Equivalent Units Conversion    746,000

Explanation:

Breakfast Cereal Maker

Weighted-Average Inventory Method

Total Equivalent Units

                                     Units               Conversion     Equivalent Units

Particulars                                                   %

Units completed         620,000               100 %             620,000

<u>Add Ending WIP          180,000                70 %               126,000</u>

<u>Total Equivalent Units                                                      746,000</u>

<u />

<em>The total Equivalent units are obtained by adding the percent of the units in the ending work in process inventory to the units completed and transferred out. This is the average weighted method of finding the equivalent units.</em>

<em>As only conversion is required we found out the conversion units only.</em>

3 0
3 years ago
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