Answer:
Probability ball: white - P(W)P(W);
Probability ball: even - P(E)P(E);
Probability ball: white and even - P(W&E).
Probability ball picked being white or even: P(WorE)=P(W)+P(E)-P(W&E).
(1) The probability that the ball will both be white and have an even number painted on it is 0 --> P(W&E)=0 (no white ball with even number) --> P(WorE)=P(W)+P(E)−0P(WorE)=P(W)+P(E)−0. Not sufficient
(2) The probability that the ball will be white minus the probability that the ball will have an even number painted on it is 0.2 --> P(W)−P(E)=0.2P(W)−P(E)=0.2, multiple values are possible for P(W)P(W) and P(E)P(E) (0.6 and 0.4 OR 0.4 and 0.2). Can not determine P(WorE)P(WorE).
(1)+(2) P(W&E)=0 and P(W)−P(E)=0.2P(W)−P(E)=0.2 --> P(WorE)=2P(E)+0.2P(WorE)=2P(E)+0.2 --> multiple answers are possible, for instance: if P(E)=0.4P(E)=0.4 (10 even balls) then P(WorE)=1P(WorE)=1 BUT if P(E)=0.2P(E)=0.2 (5 even balls) then P(WorE)=0.6P(WorE)=0.6. Not sufficient.
Answer: E.
Answer:
x=-3+3/5 brainliest plz
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
100-47=53 so 53$ profit
Step-by-step explanation:
I no learn yet. buttttttt what ever I don't care
Answer:
3.14 ft² or 2,917 cm²
Step-by-step explanation:
To do this, we need to know the expression to calculate the area of a circle.
The area of any circle is:
A = πr²
Where:
π: value of pi, which is 3.14
r: radius of the circle, in this case 1 ft
Calculating the area in units of ft:
A = 3.14 * (1)²
A = 3.14 ft²
Now, if you convert the foot to cm we have:
1 * 30.48 = 30.48 cm
Solvinf for A:
A = 3.14 * (30.48)²
A = 2,917.15 cm²
