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Dmitrij [34]
3 years ago
13

Is 2x+4+3(2x-1) equivalent to 8x-2

Mathematics
1 answer:
almond37 [142]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: 2x+4+3(2x-1) is not equivalent to 8x-2. it is equivalent to 8x+1

Step by step solution:

Step 1 :

Equation at the end of step 1 :

(2x + 4) + 3 • (2x - 1)

Step 2 :

Final result :

8x + 1

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–24 + 12d = 2(d – 3) + 22
iris [78.8K]

Answer:

d = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can someone please explain how to go the answers for this
Effectus [21]

Answer:

A=3, B=4, C=-5

Step-by-step explanation:

So A represents the amplitude, which is the distance between the midline (C), the middle of the graph, and the maximum (or minimum). B is the distance of the period of the graph. In this case, we see that the midline is C=-5 because that is the halfway point of the sine function. We also see that the period distance is B=5-1=4, so our period would be 2π/4 or π/2. Our amplitude would be A=3 because |a|=|-5-(-2)|=|-5+2|=|-3|=3. Observe the graph to see this visually.

7 0
3 years ago
Translate into an alegbraic expression and simplify if possible.
serg [7]

Answer:

(10-x)GB

Step-by-step explanation:

Music=10-x, simple arithmetic

6 0
3 years ago
4000(1 + 0.025/52) 52•15=<br> Round answer to the nearest hundredth
Sauron [17]
Use PEMDAS to solve this so

4000(1.0005) 52 • 15 =
4002 (52) • 15 = 3,121,500
4 0
3 years ago
There are five candies in a bag. Three are chewy, and two are chocolate. You draw a candy, do not replace it, and then draw anot
castortr0y [4]

It has been computed that the probability of choosing two chocolate candies is 2/25.

<h3>How to calculate probability</h3>

The probability of choosing the first chocolate candy will be 2/5.

The probability of choosing the second chocolate candy will be 1/5.

Therefore, the probability of choosing two chocolate candies will be:

= 2/5 × 1/5

= 2/25

Learn more about probability on:

brainly.com/question/25870256

4 0
1 year ago
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